Business Flashcards

Problem set 3 (Business statistics)

“In sample we deal with …, in populations with…” 1.) Statistics2.) parameters
Which of the following provides a measure of central location for the data?a.) Standard deviation b.) Meanc.) Varianced.) Range Mean
A numerical value used as a summery measure for a sample, such as sample mean, is known as Sample Statistics
Since the population size is always larger than the sample size, then the sample statistic can be smaller, larger, or equal to the population parameter
μ is an example of population parameter
The median of a sample will always equal the 50th percentile
The median is a measure of central location
The 75th percentile is referred as the Third quartile
The pth quertial is a value such that at least p percent of the observation are less than equal to this value
The difference between the largest and the smallest data values is the range
The first quartile Is the same as the 25th percentile
Which of the following is not a measure of central location?a.)Mean b.) Medianc.) Varianced.) Mode Variance
If a data set has an even number of observation, the median is the average value of the two middle item when all item are arranged in ascending order
Which of the following is a measure of dispersiona.) Percentiles b.) Quartilesc.) Interquartile range d.) all of the above interquartile range
the most frequent occurring value of a data set is called the mode
The interquartile range is the difference between the third quartile and the first quartile
If index i (which is used to determine the location of the pth percentile) is not an integer, its value should be rounded up
When the data are skewed to the right, the measure of skewness will be positive
when data are positively skewed , the mean will usually be greater than the median
Which of the following is not a measure of dispersiona.) the rangeb.) the 50th percentialc.) the standard deviationd.) the interquartile range the 50th percentile
The range is used as a measure of variability to overcome what difficulty of the range? the range influenced too much by extreme values
If the variance of a data set is correctly computed with the formula using n-1 in the denominator the data set is a sample
In computing descriptive statistics from grouped data ( like frequency histogram) data values are treated as if they occur at the midpoint of a class
The measure of dispersion that is influenced most by extreme values is the range
When should measure of location and dispersion be computed from grouped data rather than from individual data values? only when individuals data values are unavaliable
The descriptive measure of dispersion that is based on the concept of a deviation about the mean is the standard deviation
The measure of location which is the most likely to be influenced by extreme values in the data set is the mean
The most important statistical descriptive measure of the location of data set is the mean
The numerical value of the standard deviation can never be negative
The sample variance could be smaller, equal to, or larger than the true value of the population variance
The variance can never be negative
the sum of deviations of the individual data elements from their mean is always equal to zero
Standard deviation of the population σ
mean of the population μ
variance of the population σ^2
size of the population N
mean of the sample -X
size of sample N
a numerical measure of linear associate between two variables correlation coefficient of covariance
positive values of covariance indicates positive relation between the independent and the dependent variables
the coefficient of correlation ranges between -1 and +1
the coefficient of correlation cannot be larger than 1
When the smallest and largest percentage of item are removed from data set and the mean is computed, the mean of the remaining data is the trimmed mean
during a cold winter, the temperature stayed below zero for ten days (ranging from -20 to -5). the variance of temp of the 10 days period must be at least 0
which of the following is not a measure of dispersiona.) modeb.) Standard deviation c.) ranged.) interquartile range mode
Business Flashcards

GEB Chapter 4

Encouraged by the new Sarbanes-Oxley law, individuals who report unethical or illegal behavior within an organization are referred to as ____________.a) compliance policeb) whistleblowersc) corporate raidersd) vigilantes b
The most basic question in an ethics-based management system is asking the question:a) Is it balanced?b) Is it legal?c) Who will know?d) Has it been done before? b
Progressive companies today use __________ to communicate their CSR efforts with the public. Toyota, for example, ran a contest where it donated 100 cars to nonprofit organizations, voted on by Facebook™ and Twitter™ participants.a) free magazine, newspaper, and TV adsb) government-supported direct mail campaignsc) social mediad) employees and internal public relations c
Which of the following is not included as one of the questions we must ask when faced with an ethical dilemma?a) Is it legal?b) How will it make me feel about myself?c) Is it acceptable if everyone else is doing it?d) Is it balanced? c
Which of the following is not a part of an integrity-based ethics code?a) Defines an organization’s guiding principlesb) Supports ethically sound behaviorc) Emphasizes strong penalties for wrong-doersd) Stresses shared accountability c
A few months ago, Pedro’s Pizza House, a large nationwide chain of restaurants, purchased one of its competitors, Italian Stallion Pizza Stations, for $800 million. Italian Stallion stockholders got a very fair deal for their stock they owned in the company. However, the purchase was not without its problems. An issue arose when it was disclosed that somehow a member of Pedro’s management team mentioned the deal to a person he sat next to on a flight from LA to Seattle. That person called five of his relatives and several friends. They quickly bought shares of Italian Stallion and purchased the stock before the acquisition became public. These actions are called _________.a) acquisition stalkingb) pro-current procurementc) insider tradingd) moral impropriety c
When it comes to ethical behavior:a) many Americans decide what’s ethical based upon the situation in which they find themselves.b) most Americans have an absolute sense of what is moral.c) most Americans give a considerable amount of time to helping their communities.d) employees rarely violate safety standards or “goof off” at work. a
When an F5 (category 5) tornado hit a town in southern Missouri, the people that lived there needed the basics: food, water, and shelter. The owners of Boccardi’s Ristorante in St. Louis drove several hours with a van of employees, equipment, and food to donate what they could to help the storm victims. The business term we use to describe this philanthropic action is ___________________, where a company donates what it does best to help make a situation better.a) social impact programb) corporate beneficial managementc) corporate social initiatived) corporate inclusion policy c
Ethics are the standards of right and wrong set for us by society, whereas the law is __________.a) a higher calling where society acknowledges that we must take a higher level of action against what may be perceived as a wrongful actb) the specific and certain way of solving right and wrong that goes beyond what we consider good ethical behaviorc) the minimum protection a society enacts toward behavior that is harmful to manyd) obeyed strictly out of compliance, whereas ethical behavior is in complianc c
Which of the following statements reflects upon the difficulty companies face when requiring international suppliers to follow environmental and human rights standards set by U.S. firms?a) It’s the age-old reality: “Out-of-sight, out-of-mind.” U.S. companies tend to overlook and forget human rights abuses abroad.b) Multinational corporations are committed to operating within the legal limits of U.S. law. U.S. law does not require U.S. firms to comply because of competitive advantage concerns.c) U.S. companies follow the lead of consumers, and at this time, there is no evidence of a trend toward concern for better human rights and environmental standards.d) Both economics and culture enter into the discussion of fairness concerning international suppliers who do business with U.S. firms. d
Besides environmental groups, unions, and investors, a relatively new type of watchdog organization that reports on corporate social responsibility efforts is _____________.a) corporate raider divisionsb) secondary market companiesc) internal search and occupy organizationsd) socially conscious research organizations d
If your supervisor directed you to enter false information into a sales order book and told you if you refused that you would lose your opportunity for promotion, you would probably consider this situation to be a(n) ________.a) win-win situationb) corporate accountability issuec) ethical dilemmad) important act of self-interest c
American businesses are:a) demanding socially responsible behavior from international suppliers, particularly in the areas of environmental standards and human rights issues.b) holding international suppliers to different standards than American companies must adhere to in the United States.c) demanding that international suppliers adhere to higher, more costly standards than their American counterparts.d) not concerned with the ethical or socially responsible behavior of their international suppliers. a
The last recession changed the way many companies offer support to people and communities in need. Many companies ______________.a) increased financial donations to local areas but pulled away from national and global contributionsb) decreased financial donations and eliminated support in almost every wayc) decreased financial donations but encouraged their employees to volunteer their time to corporate social initiatives and projectsd) increased their financial donations because they understood how badly society needed a helping hand c
Jake served on a committee of employees who were charged with selecting three co-workers to honor at the holiday banquet. One employee whose name was at the top of everybody’s list was instrumental in helping another employee who failed to wear his protective headgear to avoid suffering a serious head injury. Although this was a noble act, Jake knew that the hero was frequently negligent about wearing his own headgear. Jake knew that several other employees followed strict company policy every day and always wore their headgear; yet, they were not being acknowledged for their compliance. According to Norman Vincent Peale, which of the following questions should Jake refer to as he proceeds to make an ethical decision?a) Is the action I am proposing to take something the boss would like to promote among workers?b) How does the action I am proposing to take make me feel about myself?c) Does the action I am about to take follow universal business practices?d) How can my decision help elevate my own status within the firm? c
According to the text, ethical behavior begins with:a) religious and community leaders.b) government regulations and laws.c) top corporate leaders.d) ourselves. d
Organizational ethics begins:a) at the top levels of management.b) only with full-time employees.c) with the labor unions and employee groups.d) with mid-level and supervisory managers. a
Which of these actions is least likely to restore the trust of the American public in the free-market system?a) Passing stricter accounting and financial reporting laws.b) Punishing those who have broken the law.c) Define the concept of ethics more narrowly, and make the definition closer to the definition of legality.d) Passing new laws making business, religious and government leaders more accountable for their actions. c
Government and business leaders are being held to:a) lower ethical standards than in the past.b) ethical standards in the U.S., but unfortunately foreign leaders are not being subjected to ethical scrutiny.c) ethical standards are often unreasonable and cannot be met by most leaders.d) higher ethical standards than in the past. d
The Pak-It-Your-Way Company makes custom packaging of all kinds. The firm has evolved into a big business due to quality and innovative work. Recently, top management asked company departments to list and evaluate the kinds of socially responsible efforts conducted internally and externally in the business and also to list negative occurrences that supervisors observed. Top management is essentially conducting a(n)_____________.a) social auditb) aggregate independent appraisalc) 360-reviewd) internal investigation a
U.S. companies that operate abroad, particularly those who contract with foreign companies, are now ________ human rights and environmental standards followed by U.S. law.a) separating themselves from suppliers who violateb) asking suppliers to lower their standards to be in compliance withc) free from the concern ofd) requiring suppliers to be evaluated monthly concerning a
Which of the following is the best reason for a business to be managed ethically?a) So that government regulators will not be able to complain about the ethical behavior of the company.b) If the company is engaged in a lawsuit, the ethics code can be used as a legal defense.c) An ethically managed business helps to reduce employee turnover.d) Business leaders don’t want to get caught behaving unethically. c
The first day on the job waiting tables at a popular restaurant, Ashley noticed that when one member of the wait staff was serving a very large party, the other waiters would help with carrying food to the tables and even checking to make sure water glasses were filled. Although these actions were not part of the mandatory wait staff training, Ashley perceived that wait staff members who were not attentive in helping out were not viewed as team players by the majority of employees. Ashley was observing an example of the ___________ followed at this organization.a)social order ethicsb) integrity-based ethicsc) compliance-based ethicsd) actual ethics b
A legal provision known as the _______________ now provides an award for whistleblowers whose actions result in a legal conviction. The monetary award may total as high as 30% of the amount collected for violations, above the first $1 million.a) Sarbanes-Oxley Rulingb) Internal Audit Company Protection Actc) Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Actd) Sherman Act c
Proponents of corporate social responsibility strongly believe in benevolence; however, they still want their businesses to be profitable. In the long run, they believe ______________.a) benevolence can lead to a vote of no confidence by company stakeholdersb) CSR can lead to even more profitsc) the fastest way to demoralize your stakeholders is to spend too much money supporting social issues, such as having employees assist in community effortsd) firms should take added caution not to support government programs that protect the environment b
Business Flashcards

Chapter 6 quiz

Which of the following terms refers to the process individuals or groups go through to​ select, purchase,​ use, and dispose of​ goods, services,​ ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and​ desires?A.InvolvementB.Consumer behavior.C.Search engine marketing​ (SEM)D.Perceived riskE.Search marketing Consumer behavior
If a consumer sees a significant difference between his or her current state of affairs and some desired or ideal​ state, which step of the consumer​ decision-making process is the consumer​ in?A.Evaluation of alternativesB.​Post-purchase evaluationC.Problem recognition.D.Information searchE.Product choice Problem recognition
In which step in the​ consumer-decision making process will a consumer narrow down choices deciding on​ feasibility, and comparing the pros and cons of each remaining​ option?A.​Post-purchase evaluationB.Information searchC.Evaluation of alternatives.D.Problem recognitionE.Product choice Evaluation of alternatives
If a consumer is experiencing cognitive dissonance regarding his or her​ purchase, the consumer is on what step of the consumer​ decision-making process?A.Evaluation of alternativesB.​Post-purchase evaluation.C.Product choiceD.Problem recognitionE.Information search Post-purchase evaluation
Which of the following terms refers to the process by which people​ select, organize, and interpret information from the outside​ world?A.MotivationB.PerceptionC.ExposureD.InterpretationE.Attention perception
A Rolex​ watch, a Lexus​ car, and even the latest Apple iPhone are all examples of a​ _____ status
Which of the following refers to demand in which changes in price have little or no effect on the amount​ demanded?A.Inelastic demand B.Joint demandC.Organizational marketsD.Fluctuating demandE.Derived demand Inelastic demand
Which of the following describes a​ business-to-business, or​ organizational, market?A.Purchases frequently made on impulseB.Purchases for individual or household consumptionC.Purchases involving competitive​ bidding, price​ negotiations, and complex financial arrangementsD.Many individual or household customersE.Demand based on consumer needs and preferences that is generally​ price-elastic, steady over​ time, and independent of demand for other products Purchases involving competitive​ bidding, price​ negotiations, and complex financial arrangements
Which of the following refers to a group that purchases finished goods for the purpose of selling those finished goods for a​ profit, renting, or leasing to consumers and other​ businesses?A.Government marketsB.ResellersC.​Not-for-profit marketsD.Organizational marketsE.Producers Resellers
correct, Chapter Quiz 6.5.4 Which of the following terms refers to creating a written description of the​ quality, size,​ weight, color,​ features, quantity,​ training, warranty, service​ terms, and delivery requirements for the​ purchase?A.Customer reference programB.Multiple sourcingC.Product specificationsD.Single sourcingE.Reciprocity Product specifications
Which of the following refers to the process individuals experience when working to satisfy their needs and​ desires?A.Consumer behaviorB.Perceived riskC.Problem recognitionD.Habitual decision makingE.Extended problem solvin Consumer behavior
What type of purchase decision is often based on a response to cues in the environment rather than the perceived consequences of the​ purchase?A.Determinant attributeB.​Low-involvementC.Problem recognitionD.​High-involvementE.Consideration set ​Low-involvement
___ is the process individuals or groups go through to​ select, purchase,​ use, and dispose of​ goods, services,​ ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and desires.A.InvolvementB.Consumer behaviorC.Perceived riskD.Search marketingE.Search engine marketing​ (SEM) Consumer behavior
____ is the last step in the consumer​ decision-making process in which the consumer evaluates the quality of his or her choice.A.Information searchB.Product choiceC.​Post-purchase evaluationD.Problem recognitionE.Evaluation of alternatives ​Post-purchase evaluation
In​ the________ step of the consumer​ decision-making process, a consumer focuses on two components​ first, and a consumer armed with information identifies a small number of products in which he or she is interested. Then using a set of evaluation​ criteria, the consumer will decide among the options.A.evaluation of alternativesB.problem recognitionC.information searchD.product choiceE.​post-purchase evaluation evaluation of alternatives
Which of the following is NOT one of the steps in the​ decision-making process?A.Product choiceB.Problem recognitionC.Perceived riskD.Evaluation of alternativesE.Information search Perceived risk
Which of the following is the theory that learning occurs based on past experiences and connections​ formed?A.Behavior learningB.Hierarchy of needsC.Observational learningD.PsychographicsE.​Top-of-mind awareness Behavior learning
How can marketers increase the chances that consumers will have a connection​ to, and respond​ to, an​ ad?A.Incorporate gamificationB.Eliminate demographic cuesC.Offer interpretationD.Conduct observational learningE.Base the ad on personal needs and goals Base the ad on personal needs and goals
_____ is the process by which people​ select, organize, and interpret information from the outside world.A.ExposureB.AttentionC.PerceptionD.MotivationE.Interpretation Perception
When marketers give celebrities free products in hopes the celebrity will like and show off the​ product, marketers are using​ ________, which is the process by which people​ select, organize, and interpret information from the outside world.A.motivationB.perceptionC.exposureD.attentionE.interpretation exposure
_____ is a type of learning that occurs when a stimulus eliciting a response is paired with another stimulus that initially does not elicit a response on its own but will cause a similar response over time because of its association with the first stimulus.A.Classical conditioningB.Operant conditioningC.Observational learning theoryD.Behavioral learning theoryE.Cognitive learning theory Classical conditioning
Rich media can best be described as​ internal state that drives us to satisfy needsB.the process of assigning meaning to a stimulus based on prior associations we have with it and assumptions we make about itC.a digital advertising term for an ad that includes advanced features like video and audio that encourage viewers to interact and engage with the contentD.companies that collect information on consumers and use it to create detailed profiles of individualsE.a strategy in which marketers apply game design techniques to​ non-gaming contexts like shopping a digital advertising term for an ad that includes advanced features like video and audio that encourage viewers to interact and engage with the content
Which situational influence determines whether a shopper will react positively or negatively to a store or shopping​ experience?A.ValuesB.Physical environmentC.CultureD.Social classE.Time Physical environment
Who are the people who easily influence​ other’s attitudes or behaviors based on perceived expertise or knowledge about a​ product?A.Mass class leadersB.Commercial endorsersC.Opinion leadersD.Reference groupsE.Producers Opinion leaders
____ is a marketing technique that links distinct experiences such as a unique fragrance with a product or service.A.Sensory marketingB.CultureC.MicrocultureD.Time povertyE.Subculture Sensory marketing
___ refers to the hundreds of millions of global consumers who now enjoy a level of purchasing power​ that’s sufficient to let them afford​ high-quality products offered by​ well-known multinational companies.A.Opinion leaderB.​Mass-classC.Social classD.Reference groupE.Status symbol mass-class
Many consumers are becoming very aware of the social and environmental consequences of their purchaseslong dashand making their decisions accordingly.​ ________ refers to the social movement directed toward protecting consumers from harmful business practices.A.SubcultureB.MicrocultureC.ConsumerismD.CultureE.Sensory marketing Consumerism
An opinion leader can best be described as​ ________.A.the overall rank of people in a societyB.the visible markers that provide a way for people to flaunt their membership in higher social classes​ (or at least to make others believe they are​ members)C.the hundreds of millions of global consumers who now enjoy a level of purchasing power​ that’s sufficient to let them afford​ high-quality products offered by​ well-known multinational companiesD.a person who influences​ others’ attitudes or behaviors because they believe that he or she possesses expertise about the productE.a set of people that a consumer wants to please or imitate a person who influences​ others’ attitudes or behaviors because they believe that he or she possesses expertise about the product
Goods that are produced and sold to help support the operations of other businesses are part of the​ _____.A.​business-to-business marketB.​single-sourcing marketC.customer reference programD.government class framework business-to-business market
When the demand for goods in a business is based on consumer demand for what is​ produced, the organization is operating based on​ _____.A.B2B demandB.derived demandC.geographic concentrationD.organizational marketsE.​limited-term relationships derived demand
In B2B​ markets, ________ demand means that it usually​ doesn’t matter if the price of a B2B product goes up or down–business customers still buy the same quantity.A.jointB.inelasticC.fluctuatingD.derivedE.organizational markets inelastic
Which of the following describes an organizational​ market?A.Purchases for individual or household consumptionB.Purchases frequently made on impulseC.Demand based on consumer needs and​ preferences, which is generally​ price-elastic, steady over​ time, and independent of demand for other productsD.Many individual or household customersE.Purchases made by someone other than the user of the product Purchases made by someone other than the user of the product
__ make up the largest single business market in the United States.A.ProducersB.ResellersC.Government marketsD.Organizational marketsE.​Not-for-profit markets Government markets
Which of the following is NOT considered typical of organizational​ markets?A.Purchasers often engage in lengthy decision processesB.Purchases made according to precise technical specifications based on product expertiseC.Purchases frequently involve high risk and high costD.Interdependencies between buyers and​ sellers; long-term relationshipsE.The ultimate user often makes the purchase The ultimate user often makes the purchase
Which buyclass framework includes those items a business purchases on a regular​ basis, such as office​ supplies?A.Procurement buyB.Customer reference programC.Modified rebuyD.Straight rebuyE.Product specification buy Straight rebuy
If a firm needs specialized product or frequent deliveries of​ products, what type of supplier relationship should be​ pursued?A.OffshoringB.ReciprocityC.Single sourcingD.Modified rebuyingE.Multiple sourcing Single sourcing
A​ ________ refers to the routine purchase of items that a B2B customer regularly needs. The buyer has purchased the same items many times before and routinely reorders them when supplies are​ low, often from the same suppliers. Reordering the items takes little timeA.modified rebuyB.straight rebuyC.buyclassD.buying centerE.​new-task buy straight rebuy
The​ ________ is the member of the buying center who makes the final choice. This person usually has the greatest power within the buying​ center; she often has power within the organization to authorize spending the​ company’s money.A.initiatorB.influencerC.gatekeeperD.deciderE.user decider
Target’s computer system was breached when hackers installed​ ________ software designed specifically to damage or disrupt computer systems.A.firewallB.reverse marketingC.malwareD.encryptionE.outsourcing malware
According to a recent study cited in the​ textbook, which of the following social media sites was one of the top three most likely to be used by B2B​ marketers?A.​Yahoo!B.LinkedInC.PinterestD.InstagramE.Google LinkedIn
Business Flashcards

Business Law – Chapter 8

A contract entered into under undue influence is voidable.​ True.
U-Can-Own-It Corporation sells appliances to less educated consumers, including Viv, on installment plans. U-Can-Own-It files a suit against Viv when she stops making payments. Viv claims that the deal is unconscionable. The court will most likely consider​ The parties’ relative bargaining power.
The chief executive officers of Chemico, Inc., and Petro Products Corporation orally agree that Chemico will sell a refinery and the land on which it is situated to Petro. Under the Statute of Frauds, this deal is enforceable by​ None of the choices.
Intoxicated and not aware of the consequences, Umberto agrees to a two-year cell-phone service contract with Wander Talk, Inc., at more than the average market price. This contract is​ Not enforceable because Umberto was intoxicated enough to lack mental capacity when he agreed to it.
To be enforceable, a memorandum evidencing an oral contract must include the essential terms.​ True.
Sofia signs a covenant not to compete with her employer, Topmost Sales Corporation. A court decides that the covenant is overly restrictive. The court will likely​ Reform its terms to prevent any undue burden.
When both parties to a contract are mistaken about the same material fact, the contract cannot be rescinded.​ True.
A covenant not to compete is enforceable only if it is reasonable in duration and geographic area.​ True.
Nyoko signs a covenant not to compete with her employer, Midstates Distribution, Inc. The covenant will be enforced if it​ is reasonable with respect to geographic area and duration.
Misrepresentation of law ordinarily entitles a party to relief from a contract.​ False.
Gene, an accountant, convinces his client Hazel to sign a contract to invest her savings in 2Gether, a nonexistent social-networking Web site. There is clear and convincing evidence that Hazel did not act out of her free will. This is​ Undue influence.
Guardian Security, Inc., and Hedge Fund Corporation enter into an oral contract under which Guardian Security agrees to provide security services for Hedge Fund’s offices for as long as Hedge Fund needs them. This contract may be enforceable by​ Either Guardian Security or Hedge Fund
A covenant not to compete included in the sale of an ongoing business is unenforceable.​ False.
In certain circumstances, bargains are so oppressive that the courts relieve innocent parties of part or all of their duties.​ True.
Neil, a minor, attempts to return to its former owner, a set of skis that he recently bought, used, and wrecked, in a state in which a duty of restitution is imposed. Neil Must return the skis and pay for the damage.
Business Flashcards

Business 6-9

Management can achieve its goals by coordinating what four types of resources Material, informational, human, and financial
Coordinating people and the other resources of an organization to achieve the goals of the organization is the process of Management
Airplanes, crates, and trucks represent __________resources for Federal Express Material
Lawyers, accountants, and engineers are ________ resources of Microsoft Human
Revenues, proceeds from stock sales, and loans from bank are ________ resources for Sears Financial
As an upper level manager for Microsoft, Rodney is one of many people responsible for allocating organizational resources in order to achieve the key goals of a company. Specifically, Rodney is in charge of collecting and analyzing data on consumer preferences in personal computer design and technology ans is thus responsible for what general type of resource Informational
Planning, organizing, leading/motivating, and controlling make up the Four basic functions in the management process
Specific statements detailing what the organization intends to accomplish over a short period of time are called Objectives
A SWOT analysis is an identification and evaluation of a firm’s strengths, weaknesses, ___________, and threats Opportunities
Which of the following is external to a firm and exists independently of a company Opportunities
Which of the following would least likely to be considered a threat to an organization Human resources of an organization
Grouping resources and activities to efficiently and effectively accomplish a result is called Organizing
The process of evaluating and regulating ongoing activities to ensure that goals are achieved is known as Controlling
A large computer company provides well-being seminars free to its employees and provides them with a fitness facility to encourage physical and mental health. The company hopes this will create a satisfying work environment. Which managerial function does this involve Motivating
American Airlines has established a goal of increasing its profits by 12 percent next year. To ensure that the goal is reached, management monitors profits on a monthly basis. After three months, if profits have not increased by 3 percent, management will take corrective action to get the company on track. By doing so, management is carrying out its ___________ function Controlling
The CEO’s role at General Electric requires him to spend a great deal of time on planning. This indicates that he is a(n) __________manager Top
Chris Gomez is a plant manager for national Manufacturing Company. With regard to levels of management, Chris is a(n) _________manager Middle
A manager who coordinates the activities of operating employees is a(n) ________manager First-line
A manager who has the ability to see the big picture of an organization and to understand how the various parts of the organization can fit together has ________skills Conceptual
Specific skills needed to accomplish specialized activities such as drafting and welding are known as _________skills Technical
A manager with _______skills has the ability to deal effectively with people inside and outside the organization Interpersonal
A former CEO at International Telephone and Telegraph has a reputation for publicly humiliating subordinates who annoyed or disappointed them. This manager obviously needed to improve his ________ skills Interpersonal
Mondell’s lack of effective writing skills and his challenges in speaking to groups of people is causing stress in his job. He is becoming very aware that he needs to improve his _______skills Communication
Although Frank is not in top management, he is charismatic and well liked by others in his organization. Other employees often look to Frank to see how he reacts to new policies implemented by top management, and they follow his lead. Frank has _______ leadership in his organization Informal
Shyana has formal power in the Coffee Lovers, Ltd. organization while Sam has informal power. One of the primary differences between Shyana and Sam is that Shyana has ________ within the organizations while Sam does not Authority
Vice president, marketing — Regional sales manager — District manager — Sales supervisor represents a(n) Chain of command
Legal services and public affairs are ________ types of jobs, so they do not fit directly into the chain of command Advisory
The various tasks in IBM’s manufacturing plant are arranged so that one worker draws the wiring, another strengthens the wires, a third cuts them, a fourth inserts them, and a fifth seals them together. This is an example of job Specialization
A benefit of job specialization is that it Is easier to train new employees
When a worker has to learn only a specific, highly specialized task, that individual should be able to learn to do it efficiently. However, this efficiency could eventually become inhibited by job monotony and boredom. This situation could be alleviated through Job rotation
Grouping jobs into manageable units according to some reasonable scheme is known as Departmentalization
Location, product, function, and customer are common bases for a firm’s Departmentalization
A computer manufacturer is first divided into the following groups: Home Office/Personal Use, Small Business, Large Business, and Educational Institutions. Within each of these divisions, management is organized into finance, operations, marketing, and human resources. This company is organized first by ________, then by ________ Customer; Function
General Motors has separate divisions for Chevrolet, Pontiac, Oldsmobile, Buick, and Cadillac. This is an example of departmentalization by Product
A firm organized on the basis of retail customers and wholesale customers utilizes the concept of departmentalization by Customer
The assignment of part of a manager;s work authority to a worker is called Delegation
Janet is a runner for a large law firm. Her duties include purchasing supplies for the copy room. Janet was given permission by the office manager to sign credit-card receipts when making purchases. Janet has been given ________ to use the firm’s credit card Authority
The degree of centralization of an organization is based on the Delegation of authority
The more complex and uncertain a company’s environment, the more likely it is that the company will Decentralize the organization
A common characteristic of a centralized organization is Decision making by a few top-level managers
Rockwood International needs to make risky decisions on a daily basis. Therefore, its managers are likely to Centralize decision making
A biotechnology company is constantly faced with important decisions that are likely to have severe consequences on the future of the company. The top managers should Exercise centralized decision-making authority
The head of the marketing department of CBS Environmental, Inc., supervises twelve people in her department. This represents her Span of management
Zyquila is a manager in an organization where a great deal of interaction is required between herself and her workers and new problems arise frequently. Zyquila is likely to have A narrow span of control
Many organizations today are moving toward a(n)________ organization in an effort to get decisions made more quickly and action plans implemented more rapidly Flatter
A manager with few subordinates is said to have a Narrow span of control
A span of control may be wide when Few new problems are expected to arise
George Brown is a regional sales manager of Unisys, a large manufacturer of computer systems. As such, George is responsible for salespeople throughout the region, and he must interact with them frequently to solve problems. Which of the following descriptions is most characteristic of Unisys and its sales managers Narrow span of management control and tall organization height
A consulting manager at SAP America has a very side span of control. This is probably because the Manager and his or her subordinates are very competent
The number of layers, or levels, in a firm is referred to as the firm’s Organizational height
Generally speaking, a narrow span of management implies that the height of the organization will be ________; a wide span of management implies that the height of the organization will be ________ Tall; Flat
A small restaurant with wait staff that reports to staff managers who reports to a floor manager who report to the restaurant manager is a clear example of a __________ organizational structure Line
A basic difference between line managers and staff managers is that the line managers have ________ which staff managers rarely have Authority
When line managers in an organization encounter issues that a staff member with specialized expertise can assist with, the staff member they consult with has ________ authority Advisory
In an organization with a matrix structure, authority flows both Down and across
Airo Corporation has a traditional structure. It wants to change to a project structure that will allow more interaction among functional groups. Which structure would you suggest Matrix
Gio is in charge of making sure the raw steel brought into her company’s factory is turned into high-quality bearings for sale to customers. Gio is a(n) ________ manager Operations
John works for Texas Instruments. His task involve traveling to nearby colleges, interviewing students for hire after graduation, selecting certain ones to be invited for an office visit, and acquainting them with the facilities. He is in which phase of the HRM process Acquiring human resources
Activities that increase employees satisfaction such as surveys, employee communication programs, exit interviews, and fair treatment are all part of which phase of the human resources management process Maintaining human resources
Generally, human resources management is a responsibility shared by line managers and HRM specialists
Information on evolving technologies, industry staffing practices, projected economic trends, the particular company’s future business ventures, new products, and projected expansions or contractions of certain product lines can be helpful in predicting Human resource demans
When sales drop each summer at Vail Mountain Resorts, a high-quality destination ski area, the resort owners temporarily have too many employees to service the reduced number of tourists that enjoy the area during the warmer months. In this situation, the resorts most likely would Lay off workers
When people from a variety of different countries and educational and work experience backgrounds come together to work on a project, they often have varying perspectives on given issues. This benefits the company in the form of Better problem solving
Martin Enterprises wants to ensure that it thoroughly understands all of its jobs so that it can determine the qualifications each job demands. To do so, Martin would first Conduct job analysis
Gabriela wanted to know about the skills and experiences needed to qualify for a management position with JCPenny. Thus, he called and asked the personnel specialist to send him a job Description
When Foot Locker, a retailer of athletic shoes, wanted to study the various elements and requirements of the positions needed to staff a store in a large mall, it most likely began by Instituting a job analysis procedure
The process of attracting qualified job applicants is called Recruiting
Atlas Company pays workers $500 for recommendations that result in a hiring. In two years, the company has hired at least forty people through this program. Atlas Company is fulfilling its employment needs by using ________ as a recruiting source Employee referrals
All of the following are sources of external recruiting except Promotion of a current employee
You were asked to write a report to management indicating the primary advantage of external recruiting. You chose to focus on external recruiting’s abilities to ________ as its primary advantage Bring in new perspectives and varied background
One organization carefully observes candidates’ mannerisms, another uses gut feelings, and still another compares the candidates’ grade point averages when making a ________ decision Selection
Misumi wants to impress prospective employers with a summary of her background and qualifications for a management position. Her father, who is a businessperson, suggested sending a(n) Resume
The interview is part of Selection
Perhaps the most widely used selection technique is the Interview
People who can verify background information and provide personal evaluations of candidates References
What is cultural diversity, and why is it an important issue? It is differences among people in a workforce owing to race, ethnicity, religion, age, gender, and physical or learning abilities. It is important because it improves creativity and fresh view points for problem solving and decision making
To learn the exact nature of a job, we may use job analysis, a job description, and a job specification. For what purpose is each used? What information would a job description contain? A job specification? Job Analysis: Studying jobs to determine requirements. Job description: List of elements for a job–Duties, conditions, responsibilities. Job specification; List of qualifications to perform a job–Skills, abilities, education, experience
Business Flashcards

Business Ethics Chapter 1 Quiz

The paradox of hedonism (or the paradox of selfishness) is that people who are exclusively concerned with their own interests tend to have happier and more satisfying lives than those who are concerned about other people. True
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes moral standards from other sorts of standards? moral standards take priority over other standards
Choose the statement that is a true reflection of moral beliefs Bystander apathy appears to result in part from diffusion of responsibility.
The benefits within moral standards are best seen in which statement? Professional codes are the rules that are supposed to govern the conduct of members of a given profession.
According to divine command theory, if stealing is wrong then it is wrong because:a. God forbids stealing because stealing is wrong.b. God leaves right and wrong up to humanity.c. Stealing is wrong only because God commands us not to steal.d. Our reason determines stealing to be wrong. C
The example of Huckleberry Finn shows:a. unlike most people, Huckleberry Finn lacked a conscience. b. we shouldn’t rely uncritically on what our conscience says.c. when in doubt, one should ignore one’s conscience.d. one should always obey one’s conscience. B
Our conscience evolved as we internalized the moral instructions of the parents or other authority figures who raised us as children. True
According to Tom Regan, our considered moral beliefs are those we hold only after we have made a conscientious effort (a) to attain maximum conceptual clarity, (b) to acquire all relevant information, (c) to think about the belief and its implications rationally, (d) impartially, and with the benefit of reflection, (e) coolly. True
Our relationship with the law is best described by which of the following?a. Violating the law is always immoral.b. The law is a completely adequate guide to the moral standards that we should follow.c. The law makes all immoral conduct illegal. d. To a significant extent, law codifies a society’s customs, norms, and moral values. D
A tangible truth about having moral principles is:a. business is fundamentally an amoral activity.b. if you do the right thing only because you think it will pay off, you’re not really motivated by moral concerns.c. morally responsible companies are rarely among the most profitable.d. moral behavior always pays off in strictly selfish terms. B
The famous experiments by social psychologist Solomon Asch showAnswers: a. the power of peer pressure has been greatly exaggerated. b. even temporary groups can pressure people to conform.c. the truth of utilitarianism.d. business organizations put more pressure on individual integrity than do other kinds of organization. B
Moral attitudes are best depicted by which of the following?a. As long as your conduct is legal, then it will be moral. b. Moral standards typically concern behavior that can be of serious consequence to human welfare.c. There is no distinction between morality in a broad sense and morality in a narrow sense.d. If you follow the rules of etiquette, your conduct will be moral. B
When ethical relativism is put into practice, it implies that:a. as societies evolve, their morality improves.b. in ethics, sometimes the minority is right.c. societies never share any moral values in common.d. we cannot say that slavery is wrong if the society in question believes it is right. D
Good moral judgments should be logical and:a. based on facts and acceptable moral principles.b. based on religion.c. beyond rational doubt.d. coincide with what most scientifically trained people think. A
When religion and morality are considered:a. the moral instructions of the world’s great religions are often general and imprecise.b. atheists are likely to be less moral than religious people.c. most people act rightly only because their religion tells them to.d. in practice, people who share a religion will agree on all moral questions. A
Ethical relativism supports the theory that:a. there are no moral values whatsoever.b. different societies have similar ideas about right and wrong. c. what is right is determined by what a culture or society says is right.d. morality is relative to the goal of promoting human well-being. C
Philosophical discussion of moral issues typically involves:a. the revision and modification of arguments.b. circular reasoning.c. polished rhetoric and skill at debate.d. determining what the majority thinks. A
The authors use the murder of Kitty Genovese to illustrate:a. bystander apathy.b. the paradox of hedonism.c. groupthink.d. ethical relativism. A
For philosophers, the most important issue is not where our moral principles came from, but:a. to what extent religion influences people’s moral beliefsb. how we acquired the beliefs we havec. the legal basis for acting morally d. whether those moral principles can be justified D
Choose the statement that gives the most accurate description of etiquette:a. etiquette refers to any special code of social behavior or courtesyb. the rules of etiquette are backed by statutory lawc. the rules of etiquette are a fundamental branch of moralityd. conformity with the rules of etiquette is sufficient for moral conduct A
Accepting a moral principle:a. is a purely intellectual act like accepting a scientific hypothesis. b. generally involves a desire to follow that principle for its own sake.c. is a religiously based act of faith.d. means you will never go against that principle. B
Proper logic states:a. a sound argument may have a false premise.b. a sound argument may have a false conclusion. c. all sound arguments are valid arguments.d. all valid arguments are sound arguments. C
Morality and self-interesta. are in basic, irreconcilable conflict.b. boil down to the same thing.c. can sometimes conflict.d. can never come into genuine conflict. C
If an argument is valid, thena. its conclusion must be true, if its premises are.b. the argument’s premises are true.c. the argument is sound.d. the argument’s conclusion must be true. A
Which statement is true concerning moral principles and self interests?a. Philosophers agree that morality is based on the commands of God.b. Statutes are laws applied in the English-speaking world before there were any common laws. c. Morality serves to restrain our purely self-interested desires so that we can all live together.d. “Groupthink” is a positive and necessary characteristic of all groups. C
The code or principles of conduct that a person acceptsAnswers: a. rarely guide his or her conduct in practice. b.can be distinguished from the person’s morality in a broader sense that includes his or her values, ideals, and aspirations.c. constitute the whole of his or her morality. B
Which philosopher referred to a bureaucracy as “rule by nobody”? Hannah Arendt
Which philosopher referred to a bureaucracy as “a circle from which no one can escape” ? Karl Marx
Business Flashcards

Chapter 4 Document Makeover

The subject line of a business message should​ _____. clearly indicate the topic of the message
The opening of a business message using the direct approach must​ _____. state the main idea clearly
A knowledgeable business writer can help readers by​ _____. providing an organizational structure to the message
An​ efficient, well-organized business message​ _____. contains only relevant ideas
Even a​ well-organized business message needs a​ _____or it loses credibility. thorough proofreading
Business Flashcards

Business Law questions, exam 2 (random quizlet found)

The bases of all torts are wrongs and compensations True
Logistics Trucking Company operates a fleet of fuel trucks. When one of the trucks is positioned to receive a load of biofuel, it strikes a storage tank owned by Metro Biofuel, Inc. For the cost of repairing the damage to the tank, Metro is most likely to be awarded compensatory damages
The purpose of tort law is to provide remedies for the violation of various protected interests True
A tortfeasor is one who wrongfully alleges that a tort has been committed False
Diego is arrested for a theft committed by someone who stole his identity. A court orders his release, but due to a police error in Diego’s paperwork, he is held in jail for a month. The police are most likely liable for False Imprisonment
From a computer in a distant location, Viktor searches Wilma’s personal computer without her permission. Viktor is most likely liable for invasion of privacy
Marcos wants to buy Lucia’s land, but she refuses to sell. Marcos begins using subpoenas, court orders, and other formal legal procedures in an unrelenting effort to force Lucia to sell. This is Abuse of process
Felix tells Genie, a prospective tenant, that the roof of the Valley View Apartments building does not leak when Felix knows that it does. This may give rise to an action for fraud, because the statement is one of a fact
ProHome Pest Exterminators Inc. advertises so effectively that the regular customers of its competitor Quick Pest Elimination Company patronize ProHome instead. This is ____
Normally, fraud occurs only when there is justifiable reliance on a true statement. false
Federal law prohibits the Federal Trade Commission from cooperating and sharing information with foreign agencies in investigating and prosecuting those involved in spamming. False
Usind a domain name that is an identical or similar to the trademark of another is legal False
Tech Outsourcing, Inc., registers a domain name that is the same as, or confusingly similar to, the trademark of Tech Resourcing Corporation and then offers to sell the domain name back to Tech Resourcing. This is cybersquatting
Using another’s trademark in a meta tag does not normally constitute trademark infringement, even if it is done without the owner’s permission. false
Rowan registers a domain name——that is a misspelling of a popular brand— This is typosquatting
A claim of trademark dilution requires proof that consumers are likely to be confused by a connection between the unauthorized use and the mark. false
Employers cannot monitor employees’ electronic communications made in the ordinary course of business. false
Cyber torts are torts that arise from online conduct. true
To maintain a suit for the invasion of privacy, a person must have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the particular situation. true
Global Reach Corporation uses invisible files created on the computers, smartphones, and other mobile devices of visitors to its Web sites to track the users’ browsing activities. These files are cookies
A misdemeanor is a crime punishable only by a fine false
Thinking about killing someone constitutes the crime of attempted murder. false
Picking pockets is not robbery True
A person who commits larceny can be sued under tort law. true
A person’s intent to return embezzled property—or its actual return—is not a defense to the crime of embezzlement. True
A kickback for a special favor or service is a form of bribery in some situations. True
Ordinarily, “ignorance of the law” or a mistaken idea about what the law requires is a valid defense to criminal liability. False
Annalee, an employee of Byron & Byron, Certified Public Accountants, is arrested at work. A grand jury issues a formal charge against Annalee for embezzlement. This charge is an indictment
Posing as Visa Bank, Walt e-mails Paulina, asking her to update her credit-card information through a link in the e-mail. She clicks on the link and types in the data, which Walt promptly sells to Ilana. This is phishing
Via the Internet, Lok sabotages the computer system of Metro Water Commission, a municipal water supplier, so that Metro’s pumping system breaks down, halting the delivery of water to Metro’s customers. Lok is a cyberterrorist
Business Flashcards

Venture module 4 quiz

Your friend is developing a market plan for her new business what should she put in this plan All of the above
Which statement is the best description of a vaule proposition The features and benefits that make the product or business unique
What is the main purpose of developing a business pitch To briefly share the most important info about ur business to people in an engaging way
Which of the following is probably NOT an important point to include in a business pitch A detailed description of the meaning behind the company’s name
Why is it important to conduct market research on your target audience before building your marketing plan You need to consider who your potentiometer customers are before deciding on marketing strategies
Business Flashcards

BUS 130 Test 2

Which of the following is typically included in the PLANNING STAGE of writing an effective business message? Question 1 options:A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) making the message easy to read C) making the message easy to navigate D) ensuring that the communication is fair E) identifying the primary message and key points E) identifying the PRIMARY message and key POINTS
Which of the following is typically included in the DRAFTING STAGE of writing an effective business message?Question 2 options:A) Setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) double-checking everything C) sending the message to be proofread D) identifying the primary message and key points E) ensuring the communication is fair A) SETTING a positive and other-oriented tone
Which of the following is something an EXCELLENT BUSINESS writer would do?Question 3 options: A) spend more time planning than drafting B) decide on a message-centered approach C) do the audience analysis during the drafting stage D) do a last-minute review of his or her work E) maintain an author-centered tone A) SPEND MORE TIME planning than drafting
ALAN is mentoring Pat, a younger colleague, in how to be a better business writer. As Pat was writing her last memo, she did the following things. Which one will Alan tell her she needs to change?Question 4 options: A) Pat addressed the needs of her audience in the memo. B) Pat spent a long time planning before she started to write. C) Pat applied the FAIR test to the memo when she reviewed it. D) Pat made sure the memo is easy to read and easy to navigate. E) Pat drew primarily on her own opinions and expertise. E) PAT DREW primarily on her own opinions and expertise.
Which of the following is one of the three-components of the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?Question 5 options: A) message review B) message structuring C) idea analysis D) inductive structure E) analysis of the medium B) MESSAGE structuring
Which of the following is the FIRST STEP in the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?Question 6 options:A) idea development B) message structuring C) audience analysis D) message review E) idea analysis C) Audience Analysis
How should writers CONSIDER the priorities of their targeted audience during the planning process for effective business messages?Question 7 options: A) Do not consider the priorities as they tend to fluctuate. B) Recognize that priorities shift less often than values. C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks. D) Refer to the enduring beliefs and ideals that individuals in the audience hold. E) Remember that priorities remain constant for each individual. C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.
In the COURSE of creating an effective business message, excellent business thinkers are most likely toQuestion 8 options: A) gather information from one strong source rather than from a variety of sources. B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions. C) begin jotting down a rough draft right away to capture their ideas. D) encourage one-way linear thinking and a rigid approach to business problems. E) avoid using the other-oriented tone in their text. B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions.
FACTS are statements thatQuestion 9 options: A) are subjective and differ from situation to situation. B) are based on assumptions. C) can be relied on with a fair amount of certainty. D) are fictitious in nature. E) are inherently ambiguous in nature. C) can be RELIED on with a fair amount of certainty.
Analyzing a business PROBLEM typically involvesQuestion 10 options: A) ignoring audience constraints. B) deducing conclusions from facts. C) imposing your priorities on the situation. D) exaggerating the problem. E) being flexible and not taking positions. B) DEDUCING conclusions from facts.
At glaciers inc.., the management wanted to introduce a new medical insurance program for its employees. They appointed Laura to analyze the pros and cons of the idea. Laura conducted thorough research and prepared a report based on her findings. Before doing any writing, she stated her view in a SHORT, MEMORABLE STATEMENT of less than 15 words, known as a(n)Question 11 options: A) call to action. B) primary message. C) thesis statement. D) overarching theme. E) supporting sentence. B) primary message
For the past couple of months, many employees working at Exterior Inc. have been quitting their jobs. Jason from the human resources department is given the responsibility of analyzing the reasons behind this problem. After conducting a thorough research, Jason finds that the employees were not happy with their salary and hence had no motivation to work. How will Jason structure his MESSAGE if he wants to use the deductive, or direct, APPROACH?Question 12 options: A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to Action
Most business ARGUMENTS employ a deductive approach. When employing this approach you are most likely toQuestion 13 options: A) avoid stating your position regarding any business issue. B) provide supporting reasons first followed by the primary message. C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a recommendation. D) begin by making a call to action for your audience to follow. E) begin by stating the supporting reasons followed by your call to action. C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a RECOMMENDATION.
The DIFFERENCE between the DEDUCTIVE approach and the INDUCTIVE approach is thatQuestion 14 options: A) in the inductive approach, the order of supporting ideas is unimportant. B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message. C) in the deductive approach, the supporting reasons follow the call to action. D) in the deductive approach, positions are based on assumptions, not facts. E) in the deductive approach, the business argument concludes with the primary message. B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message.
What do the deductive approach and inductive approach to STRUCTURING business messages have in COMMON?Question 15 options: A) In both, the call to action comes in the middle. B) In both, the supporting ideas come last. C) In both, the arrangement of supporting ideas is important. D) In both, the primary message comes first. E) In both, the call to action must be 15 words or less. C) In both, the arrangement of SUPPORTING ideas is important.
OMAR is the marketing manager at PLM. In his market survey, he finds that customers are not happy with PLM’s inefficient customer service. How will Omar STRUCTURE his message if he wants to use the inductive, or indirect, approach?Question 16 options: A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons C) lay out the SUPPORTING reasons in careful order; state the primary message
Lorraine, the HR manager at BGH Garden Pot Manufacturing, analyzes the problem of increasing employee turnover and concludes that upgrading the employee benefit programs would help control the situation. While preparing her report, Lorraine states that upgrading the company’s employee benefit program would reduce employee turnover because a nearby large investment firm used the same strategy to solve a similar problem. However Lorraine’s message failed to convince the decision makers at BGH. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason behind this failure?Question 17 options: A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument D) weak analogy
JORGE, the shipping manager at Durable Products, writes a MEMO proposing that that they stop using RoadHog Trucking Company and ship everything by L.B. Haines. The reason he gives is that two of the accounts that have been shipping by L.B. Haines during the last year increased their orders by more than 10%, so he is certain that switching trucking firms will cause other accounts to grow too. The executives of the company do not accept Jorge’s suggestion. Why was his memo unconvincing?Question 18 options: A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) either/or logic D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument E) faulty cause/effect argument
SALINA, the expeditor at RingPro Gasket Manufacturer, writes a memo asking her manager to buy her a new computerized system for tracking customer orders. She claims that if she does not get this system, chronically late deliveries will ensue. Her manager turns down her request. Salina made the MISTAKE of usingQuestion 19 options: A) either/or logic. B) an indirect structure. C) an unsupported generalization. D) a weak analogy. E) you-voice. A) either/or logic.
Chris, an editorial manager at Better Textbooks, Inc., wants to ELIMINATE his copy EDITING department and outsource the work to a company in India. In his proposal, he states, “Doing so will revolutionize our workflow and save us untold thousands of dollars.” The EDITORIAL director calls Chris into his office and informs him that his memo is not credible. What mistake did Chris make?Question 20 options: A) either/or logic B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument B) EXAGGERATION
DERIK has been given the responsibility of analyzing how counseling programs can reduce problem behavior among employees in his company. After much research, he discovers that counseling has several benefits. Employees exhibiting problem behavior often respond positively to counseling. They are likely to be more motivated and meet performance standards after the counseling sessions. Considering this information, identify the statement that clearly EXAGGERATES what Derik has found.Question 21 options: A) Employees exhibiting problem behavior are most likely to respond positively to counseling. B) Counseling always dramatically improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior. C) Counseling can contribute toward increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior. D) The issue of problem behavior among employees can be improved through counseling. E) Counseling is one of the ways of increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior. B) Counseling ALWAYS DRAMATICALLY improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior.
______ is the overall evaluation that A reader perceives the writer to have toward the reader and the message content.Question 22 options: A) Tone B) Framework C) Structure D) Layout E) Outline A) Tone
In all business messages, communicators should ideally AIM AT Question 23 options: A) effectively using either/or arguments. B) slanting facts to their benefit. C) projecting positivity. D) appropriately exaggerating facts. E) avoiding the other-oriented approach. C) projecting POSITIVITY.
In order to make business messages more positive, business writers should focus on actions they can accomplish and demonstrate a REALISTIC optimism. However they should be carefulQuestion 24 options: A) not to set unrealistic expectations. B) to avoid diplomatic terms. C) not to use too-strong analogies. D) to avoid generalizations. E) not to send meta messages. A) not to set unREALISTIC expectations.
Carlton finds that a geographic restructuring would have a positive effect on his insurance company and increase its efficiency. He draws up a report for the board of directors in which he mentions that separate departments should be set up for each of the company’s 10 sales territories. Which of the following statements is most likely to increase the positivity of HIS PROPOSITION?Question 25 options: A) Let me know if you want to work on changing the structure of the company. B) Using a geographic structure will not guarantee that the company’s productivity increases. C) Geographic restructuring is not likely to reduce the company’s overall costs. D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically. E) A geographic structure might possibly have a positive effect on the company. D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically.
In CONTENT and form, a business message should typicallyQuestion 26 options: A) avoid any form of self-centeredness. B) exaggerate facts. C) avoid using diplomatic terms. D) avoid using strong analogies. E) slant facts skillfully. A) avoid any form of self-CENTEREDness.
Extensive use of the I-VOICE in a business messageQuestion 27 options: A) fails to indicate that the writer cares about the interest of the audience. B) increases the positivity of the message. C) reveals that the writer has slanted the facts. D) emphasizes that the writer understands the concerns of the reader. E) indicates that the writer uses faulty either/or logic. A) fails to indicate that the writer CARES about the interest of the audience.
The use of WE-VOICE in a business messageQuestion 28 options: A) fails to reflect the interests of the audience. B) indicates that the writer has not reached any conclusions. C) decreases the credibility of the message. D) emphasizes the writer’s shared interests with the reader. E) indicates that the writer is slanting the message. D) EMPHASIZES the writer’s SHARED interests with the reader.
Which of the following is most likely to show that the writer of a business message has CONCERN for the audience?Question 29 options: A) relying heavily on the I-voice B) presenting exaggerated facts to the audience C) respecting the autonomy of the reader D) presenting slanted facts to the audience E) giving credit to any sources used C) RESPECTING the autonomy of the reader
Sending MIXED SIGNALS is most likely toQuestion 30 options: A) result in positive meta messages. B) increase the flexibility of encoding and decoding. C) cause the reader to feel confused. D) resolve the conflict between the content and tone of a message. E) increase the credibility of a message. C) cause the reader to feel CONFUSED.
In order to ENSURE the COMPLETENESS of a business message, one shouldQuestion 31 options: A) be specific. B) avoid empty phrases. C) avoid redundancies. D) control paragraph length. E) use action verbs. A) be SPECIFIC.
In the context of creating a complete BUSINESS MESSAGE, which of the following is true?Question 32 options: A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a business document down. B) Using action verbs focuses on the goal of coordinating action in the workplace and livens up your writing. C) Using longer, more unusual words to “sound smart” can increase the credibility of your message. D) Using the passive voice allows for faster processing by the readers, because most people naturally think in that structure. E) Relying on parallel language can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver. A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a BUSINESS DOCUMENT down.
Which of the following GUIDELINES should be FOLLOWED to ensure that you are creating a complete business message?Question 33 options: A) Use longer, more unusual words to “sound smart” and increase the credibility of your message. B) Avoid parallel language as it can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver. C) Include all the information you need by eliminating as much white space as possible. D) Plan, write, and review your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant. E) Use the active voice to avoid blaming others or sounding too bossy. D) PLAN, WRITE AND REVIEW your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant.
Which of the following is most likely to NEGATIVELY INFLUENCE readers’ perceptions of your CREDIBILITY?Question 34 options: A) long paragraphs B) inaccurate statements C) generous white space D) passive voice E) parallel language B) INACCURATE statements
Which of the following is most likely to POSITIVELY INFLUENCE your readers’ perceptions of your credibility?Question 35 options: A) being wordy B) being specific C) using buzzwords D) starting sentences with “There are” E) using prepositional phrases B) being specific
Neta believes it is a good idea to write business messages using generalities that will appeal to a broad readership. How is this practice likely to AFFECT Neta’s readers?Question 36 options: A) They may doubt her competence. B) They will read the message carefully. C) They will find the information they need. D) They will be assured that she is not hiding facts. E) They will focus on the primary message. A) They may doubt her competence.
Akram recently learned that his manager believes he was trying to hide the truth about his department’s EXPENSES in his last report. How can Akram revise his report to avoid giving that impression?Question 37 options: A) Shorten his paragraphs. B) Avoid using buzzwords. C) Use specific numbers and facts. D) Avoid using unfamiliar words. E) Decrease his use of white space. C) Use specific NUMBERS and facts.
The management at Lavender GARMET MANUFACTURING company conducted a survey with the intention of standardizing their employees’ productivity to increase company profits. Based on their findings, they set their standards and circulated the following instructions, “Every employee should manufacture as many shirts AS POSSIBLE.” However, this failed to clearly deliver the intended message of standardization. Which of the following would correct the problem?Question 38 options: A) Every employee should maximize the workflow of his or her station. B) As many shirts as possible should be made by each employee. C) All workers and employees should manufacture as many shirts or garments as possible. D) Every employee should manufacture a minimum of three shirts an hour. E) Needless to say, every employee should manufacture as many shirts as possible every day. D) Every employee should manufacture A MINIMUM of three shirts an hour.
In the context of business messages, CONCISENESS impliesQuestion 39 options: A) removing relevant information. B) omitting needless words. C) omitting parallel structure. D) removing white space. E) removing paragraph breaks. B) omitting NEEDLESS words.
One way to solve the problem of overly LENGTHY paragraphs is toQuestion 40 options: A) include more figures of speech. B) focus on one idea or topic in each paragraph. C) use passive voice instead of active. D) start more sentences with “There is.” E) replace verbs with prepositional phrases. B) FOCUS on one idea or topic in each paragraph.
Julio has a long paragraph that describes the TWO MAIN CAUSES of employee absenteeism and gives a suggestion to address each cause. Ideally, how many paragraphs does Julio need to cover this material?Question 41 options: A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five D) four (INTRO, CAUSE 1, CAUSE 2, CON.)
As a rule of thumb, for ROUTINE MESSAGES, the sentence length should be no more thanQuestion 42 options: A) 8 words. B) 15 words. C) 20 words. D) 25 words. E) 30 words. B) 15 words
Consider the following statement: “Employee managers can use our MOTIVATIONAL tools to MOTIVATE their employees to increase productivity.” The best way to make this statement concise is byQuestion 43 options: A) changing the passive voice. B) removing empty phrases. C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb. D) starting with “It is” or “There are.” E) removing any redundant words. E) removing any REDUNDANT words.
Consider the statement: “As most of you know, Mega Manufacturing had its most profitable year ever last year.” One way to make this statement more concise is byQuestion 44 options: A) changing the passive voice. B) removing empty phrases. C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb. D) starting with “It is” or “There are.” E) removing any redundant words. B) removing empty phrases.
It becomes easier for YOUR readers to process the information YOU present when youQuestion 45 options: A) match your writing style to the way your readers think and talk. B) use prepositional phrases extensively as they increase the clarity of the message. C) choose long and obscure words to pique their curiosity. D) avoid using parallel language, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the information provided. E) include a lot of text in your message and very little white space. A) MATCH YOUR writing style to the way YOUR readers think and talk.
Which statement about active voice and passive voice is true?Question 46 options: A) The active voice diverts attention from the doer. B) People tend to think in a doer-action-object pattern. C) The active voice is best when you do not want to attribute blame. D) People tend to sound bossy when using the passive voice. E) The passive voice places the object first. B) People tend to think in a DOER-action-object pattern.
People are most likely to process information QUICKLY when writers useQuestion 47 options: A) prepositional phrases. B) action verbs. C) the passive voice. D) complex words. E) long sentences. B) ACTION verbs.
To create a more NATURAL writing style and improve the ease of reading, a writer should useQuestion 48 options: A) passive verbs. B) parallel language. C) the passive voice. D) figures of speech. E) buzzwords. B) parallel language.
Consider the following sentence: “CEO Mike Maloney regrets to announce that PharmCo will be downsizing at the end of September.” Which of the following actions would improve the ease of reading?Question 49 options: A) Cut the prepositional phrase “at the end of September.” B) Change “at the end of September” to “at the end of the third quarter.” C) Change “PharmCo” to “PharmCo Drug and Pharmaceutical Company.” D) Change the buzzword “downsizing” to “laying off employees.” E) Change “CEO Mike Maloney” to “The CEO of PharmCo.” D) Change the buzzword “downsizing” to “laying off employees.”
Using the ACTIVE voice while writing business messagesQuestion 50 options: A) diverts the attention from the subject. B) makes the writer sound less bossy. C) allows for faster processing of the business message. D) makes the message difficult to navigate. E) is useful when the writer wants to avoid assigning blame. C) allows for FASTER processing of the business message.
The use of FAMILIAR words in business messages is most likely toQuestion 51 options: A) distract attention from the message. B) decrease the credibility of the message. C) cause the readers’ attention to wander because of boredom. D) decrease the specificity of the message. E) help the readers to process the information easily. E) HELP the readers to process the information EASILY.
Which statement about BUZZWORDS is true?Question 52 options: A) They make text more active. B) They are trite due to overuse. C) They have very technical meanings. D) They shorten the length of the message. E) They improve a message’s accuracy. B) They are trite due to OVERUSE.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of figures of speech, such as idioms and metaphors, in business writing?Question 53 options: A) They should be avoided because they lack specificity. B) They send the signal that the writer is out of touch with the audience. C) They are an effective way to write more concisely. D) They should be avoided because they are too I-centered. E) They are an effective way to make a message more natural. A) They should be AVOIDED because they LACK SPECIFICITY.
Which of the following is most likely to improve the ease of navigation in INFORMATION-RICH and COMPLEX messages?Question 54 options: A) using headings to convey the contents of sections B) avoiding the use of numbered or bulleted lists C) using several different font styles in the document D) using a new style of formatting for each section E) avoiding the use of too much white space A) using headings to convey the CONTENTS of sections
For most written business communications, the FIRST CONSIDERATION should be toQuestion 55 options: A) present the message in a visually appealing manner. B) get the message across in an easy-to-read manner. C) select the facts in a persuasive manner. D) construct the message in passive voice. E) demonstrate how much of an expert you are. B) GET THE MESSAGE ACROSS in an easy-to-read manner.
Which of the following choices is a COMPONENT of the REVIEWING PROCESS?Question 56 options: A) audience analysis B) identifying the primary message C) determining the key points D) determining the message structure E) conducting the FAIR test E) CONDUTING the FAIR test
In the context of the reviewing process, the “R” in the FAIR test stands for _____.Question 57 options: A) revision B) respect C) relevancy D) redundancy E) repetition B) respect
Which task are you most likely to do during the FINAL pass of PROOFREADING?Question 58 options: A) Check for grammatical errors. B) Look for typographical mistakes. C) Imagine how the audience will respond. D) Ask yourself if you are confident in your facts. E) See if you have made logical errors. B) LOOK for typographical mistakes.
Kwame has written a memo expressing his concern that the company has opened itself up to a DISCRIMINATION SUIT because it sponsors a men’s softball team but not a women’s sports team. Which of the following people should Kwame ask to give feedback about the wording of his memo before he sends it to the executive committee?Question 59 options: A) a colleague in the Finance Department B) a colleague in the Legal Department C) a colleague in the Purchasing Department D) a colleague in the Shipping Department E) a colleague in the Public Relations Department B) a colleague in the LEGAL Department
Ashley has written a report proposing that her company subsidize employees who take PUBLIC transportation. One of her main supporting points is that the program would help the company’s reputation because it is a green initiative. Which of the following people should Ashley ask for feedback about that part of the proposal?Question 60 options: A) an executive in the Finance Department B) an executive in the Legal Department C) an executive in the Human Resources Department D) an executive in the Research and Development Department E) an executive in the Public Relations Department E) an executive in the PUBLIC Relations Department
When CHOOSING a communication channel, ______ refers to the degree to which communications can be planned and recorded, thus allowing strategic message development.Question 61 options: A) richness B) immediacy C) constraint D) coordination E) control E) control
Angel PREFERS written communication because she can BRAINSTORM, DRAFT, EDIT, revise, and otherwise develop her message before delivering it. Which aspect of communication does she value?Question 62 options: A) permanence B) immediacy C) planning D) richness E) coordination C) planning
Bao is conducting a study that compares the cost of KEEPING print messages on file versus storing digital messages in the cloud. What aspect of communications relates to the storage of messages?Question 63 options: A) coordination B) planning C) constraint D) permanence E) richness D) permanence
Rick is trying to schedule a video teleconference with colleagues at several locations. To do so, he needs to coordinate their SCHEDULES and also CHECK TO SEE if the company needs to invest in any additional resources to make it happen. By addressing coordination and resource issues, he is dealing withQuestion 64 options: A) constraint. B) control. C) immediacy. D) permanence. E) richness. A) constraint
Which of the following deals with how QUICKLY someone is able to give feedback during communication?Question 65 options: A) coordination B) immediacy C) cue D) permanence E) richness B) immediacy
Maya’s virtual team includes editors in the United States, designers in Italy, and fact checkers in India. Maya wants the team to discuss the development process for their next book. Which communication channel will best allow team members to consider what they say, to respond in a way that is comfortable, and to fit the DISCUSSION IN THEIR SCHEDULES?Question 66 options: A) a conference call B) a videoconference C) an electronic discussion thread D) a series of print memos E) a series of one-to-one phone calls C) an electronic discussion thread
Which of the following facilitates a one-stop work space containing project and meeting information, SHARED FILES, and COMMUNICATION platforms?Question 67 options: A) texting B) written messages C) webinar D) social networking E) email D) social networking
Ismail needs to let Felicia know that the FUNDS FOR HER PET PROJECT have been SLASHED. Which communication channel should Ismail use?Question 68 options: A) email B) written message C) social networking D) texting E) spoken communication E) spoken communication
Craig is the sales manager at Blaize Supersports and has a 20-member sales team. During an average day, Craig receives about 115 emails and sends out 75 emails. James, a salesperson at the store, is typing an email to Craig. James wants to take a week off to spend time with his family. Which of the following is true concerning the SUB JECT LINE of James’s email?Question 69 options: A) The email does not need a subject line because it comes from one of Craig’s staff. B) It should include only the number of days and dates of his vacation. C) It should include James’s name, department details, and employee identification number. D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as “James requests time off.” E) It should include an attention-getting phrase such as “Urgent Staff Issue.” D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as “James requests time off.
Judging only by LENGTH, which of the following is the best subject line for an email?Question 70 options: A) Why? B) Last month C) The reason why we should consider implementing this marketing plan is its many benefits. D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00 E) So, here it goes D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be placed in the SUBJECT LINE of an email?Question 71 options: A) an expected action B) a signature block C) a list of attachments D) a professional tagline E) the recipient’s name A) an expected action
Which of the following is most likely to be included in the SIGNATURE BLOCK of an email?Question 72 options: A) a list of attachments B) an expected action C) statistical data D) contact details E) the names of all the recipients D) contact details
Which of the following GUIDELINES best ensures that your email is easy to read?Question 73 options: A) Include a subject line that is at least 20 words long. B) Make each paragraph in your message at least 80 words long. C) Avoid the inclusion of attachments. D) Avoid stating expected actions explicitly. E) Provide a descriptive signature block. E) Provide a descriptive signature block.
When Sherry sends task-oriented emails to colleagues, she always tells them the deadline for the tasks and details about when she is available to talk or meet. What conclusion are Sherry’s colleagues likely to draw from this?Question 74 options: A) Sherry holds an important place in the organization. B) Sherry is arrogant and bossy. C) Sherry respects their time and other commitments. D) Sherry packs unnecessary information in her messages. E) Sherry has leadership potential. C) Sherry RESPECTS their time and other commitments.
What should you do when you CANNOT RESPOND to a request made in an email?Question 75 options: A) Log off the system so the sender will assume that you are offline. B) Set up an automated response to say that you are out of town. C) Inform the sender that you are busy and cannot reply straightaway. D) Reply immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full. E) Ignore the email for now and reply when you can. D) REPLY immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full.
Paul always hits “reply to all” whenever he answers a team email, even if the email was a question posed by one other person and directed only to Paul. When he initiates an email about his project, he sends it to everyone in his DEPARTMENT. Judging only from this information, what impact does Paul have on his department’s communications?Question 76 options: A) He is spreading confidential information to unauthorized people. B) He is making everyone in his department feel included as part of the team. C) He is helping make the department work more efficiently. D) He is ensuring that each person on the team clearly knows his or her assignment. E) He is contributing to email overload in his department. E) He is contributing to EMAIL OVERLOAD in his DEPARTMENT.
Which of the following is a reason why greetings and names are OMITTED from emails?Question 77 options: A) People do not like being greeted or having their names used very often. B) Omitting names and greetings saves space and keeps many emails on one screen. C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of memos, which traditionally omit names and greetings. D) Most people are emotionally uninvolved at work and are not inclined toward greeting others. E) Since emails are typically forwarded to several other people, it is inappropriate to name only one recipient. C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of MEMOS, which traditionally OMIT names and greetings.
Which of the following is an example of the neutrality effect?Question 78 options: A) George writes an email in which he intends to express a negative emotion, but readers decode it as neutral. B) Sue writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral. C) Ali writes an email in which he intends to express a neutral emotion, and readers decode it as neutral. D) Rand writes an email that he intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as negative. E) Cora writes an email that she intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as positive. B) SUE writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.
Clement, a customer service representative at Sarah’s Supermart, has a tough time handling customers during his first week on the job. Carlo, Clement’s colleague, guides him through this difficult period. Afterward, Clement writes Carlo an email to thank him warmly for his help. Carlo NEITHER REACTS NOR REPLIES. Carlo’s behavior is an example ofQuestion 79 options: A) negativity effect. B) neutrality effect. C) active incivility. D) defusing. E) constraint. B) neutrality effect.
Dave sends an email to his colleague, Stan, asking for important details about an ongoing project. Stan is on a business trip and finds no time to reply to all of Dave’s queries. Dave wrongly perceives that Stan is ignoring him. Which of the following should Dave do?Question 80 options: A) Because Stan is indulging in cyber silence, Dave should retort with flames. B) Dave should inform their manager about his complaints against Stan. C) Because Stan is on a business trip, Dave should not bother him even if the project falls behind. D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply. E) Dave should ignore Stan’s emails when Stan finally replies. D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply.
One possible negative effect of texting is thatQuestion 81 options: A) the brevity of texts can make them sound bossy. B) texts are an inherently serious channel. C) texts do not convey meta messages. D) the format of texts is not good for positive news. E) texts cannot be sent to a group. A) the brevity of texts can make them sound BOSSY.
Hannah is in the middle of writing a report, and she does not want to disrupt the flow of her work by walking over to the department bookcase to double check the name of their main competitor’s product. She decides to text Joe, who sits next to the bookcase, to ask him to do it. Because of repeated incidents like this, Hannah is likely to be seen asQuestion 82 options: A) efficient. B) a team player. C) a contributor. D) busy. E) a taker. E) a taker.
Frequent incoming messages canQuestion 83 options: A) increase productivity. B) increase attention spans. C) reduce creativity. D) reduce stress. E) improve civility. C) reduce creativity.
Which of the following can help keep email-induced distractions at bay?Question 84 options: A) checking your messages once an hour B) checking your messages at the end of the day C) checking your messages once a week and using an automated message to indicate that D) checking your messages just two to four times a day E) checking your messages constantly to keep updated on the latest information D) checking your messages just two to four times a day
Why are COMPANIES like Google and Microsoft joining the Overload RESEARCH Group?Question 85 options: A) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of individuals. B) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of companies. C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many e-interruptions. D) It is a service that searches a company’s emails to reduce overload by destroying duplicates. E) It is an organization trying to train workers to have better attention spans. C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many E-INTERRUPTIONS.
How is productivity affected when employees multitask?Question 86 options: A) Productivity increases by up to 80 percent. B) Productivity increases by up to 40 percent. C) Productivity remains the same. D) Productivity drops by up to 40 percent. E) Productivity drops by up to 85 percent. D) Productivity DROPS by up to 40 percent.
Which of the following would help to REDUCE e-interruptions?Question 87 options: A) checking digital messages six to eight times a day at random B) turning on an automatic message that you are not answering emails all day C) replying immediately to all messages to get them out of the way D) using rich channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely E) adding colleagues to an email chain so they can answer the messages D) using RICH channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely
When preparing for a business phone call, you should do many of the same things you do forQuestion 88 options: A) an email. B) a meeting. C) texting. D) a webinar. E) social media. B) a meeting.
Which of the following is a helpful guideline for phone conversations with business colleagues?Question 89 options: A) Begin discussing business issues immediately after saying hello. B) To keep a formal tone, avoid using the other person’s name. C) Multitask as long as you can do so without the other person suspecting. D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties. E) To avoid wasting your colleagues’ time, end without social niceties. D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties.
Which of the following is a helpful tip for using webcams during a group video call?Question 90 options: A) Make sure your background shows several objects relevant to the conversation. B) Wear casual clothing that day to appear friendlier. C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible. D) Be careful to tone down your facial expressions and gestures. E) Sit slightly to one side so you can display visual aids if needed. C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible.