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Business Law – Chapter 8

A contract entered into under undue influence is voidable.​ True.
U-Can-Own-It Corporation sells appliances to less educated consumers, including Viv, on installment plans. U-Can-Own-It files a suit against Viv when she stops making payments. Viv claims that the deal is unconscionable. The court will most likely consider​ The parties’ relative bargaining power.
The chief executive officers of Chemico, Inc., and Petro Products Corporation orally agree that Chemico will sell a refinery and the land on which it is situated to Petro. Under the Statute of Frauds, this deal is enforceable by​ None of the choices.
Intoxicated and not aware of the consequences, Umberto agrees to a two-year cell-phone service contract with Wander Talk, Inc., at more than the average market price. This contract is​ Not enforceable because Umberto was intoxicated enough to lack mental capacity when he agreed to it.
To be enforceable, a memorandum evidencing an oral contract must include the essential terms.​ True.
Sofia signs a covenant not to compete with her employer, Topmost Sales Corporation. A court decides that the covenant is overly restrictive. The court will likely​ Reform its terms to prevent any undue burden.
When both parties to a contract are mistaken about the same material fact, the contract cannot be rescinded.​ True.
A covenant not to compete is enforceable only if it is reasonable in duration and geographic area.​ True.
Nyoko signs a covenant not to compete with her employer, Midstates Distribution, Inc. The covenant will be enforced if it​ is reasonable with respect to geographic area and duration.
Misrepresentation of law ordinarily entitles a party to relief from a contract.​ False.
Gene, an accountant, convinces his client Hazel to sign a contract to invest her savings in 2Gether, a nonexistent social-networking Web site. There is clear and convincing evidence that Hazel did not act out of her free will. This is​ Undue influence.
Guardian Security, Inc., and Hedge Fund Corporation enter into an oral contract under which Guardian Security agrees to provide security services for Hedge Fund’s offices for as long as Hedge Fund needs them. This contract may be enforceable by​ Either Guardian Security or Hedge Fund
A covenant not to compete included in the sale of an ongoing business is unenforceable.​ False.
In certain circumstances, bargains are so oppressive that the courts relieve innocent parties of part or all of their duties.​ True.
Neil, a minor, attempts to return to its former owner, a set of skis that he recently bought, used, and wrecked, in a state in which a duty of restitution is imposed. Neil Must return the skis and pay for the damage.
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Business 6-9

Management can achieve its goals by coordinating what four types of resources Material, informational, human, and financial
Coordinating people and the other resources of an organization to achieve the goals of the organization is the process of Management
Airplanes, crates, and trucks represent __________resources for Federal Express Material
Lawyers, accountants, and engineers are ________ resources of Microsoft Human
Revenues, proceeds from stock sales, and loans from bank are ________ resources for Sears Financial
As an upper level manager for Microsoft, Rodney is one of many people responsible for allocating organizational resources in order to achieve the key goals of a company. Specifically, Rodney is in charge of collecting and analyzing data on consumer preferences in personal computer design and technology ans is thus responsible for what general type of resource Informational
Planning, organizing, leading/motivating, and controlling make up the Four basic functions in the management process
Specific statements detailing what the organization intends to accomplish over a short period of time are called Objectives
A SWOT analysis is an identification and evaluation of a firm’s strengths, weaknesses, ___________, and threats Opportunities
Which of the following is external to a firm and exists independently of a company Opportunities
Which of the following would least likely to be considered a threat to an organization Human resources of an organization
Grouping resources and activities to efficiently and effectively accomplish a result is called Organizing
The process of evaluating and regulating ongoing activities to ensure that goals are achieved is known as Controlling
A large computer company provides well-being seminars free to its employees and provides them with a fitness facility to encourage physical and mental health. The company hopes this will create a satisfying work environment. Which managerial function does this involve Motivating
American Airlines has established a goal of increasing its profits by 12 percent next year. To ensure that the goal is reached, management monitors profits on a monthly basis. After three months, if profits have not increased by 3 percent, management will take corrective action to get the company on track. By doing so, management is carrying out its ___________ function Controlling
The CEO’s role at General Electric requires him to spend a great deal of time on planning. This indicates that he is a(n) __________manager Top
Chris Gomez is a plant manager for national Manufacturing Company. With regard to levels of management, Chris is a(n) _________manager Middle
A manager who coordinates the activities of operating employees is a(n) ________manager First-line
A manager who has the ability to see the big picture of an organization and to understand how the various parts of the organization can fit together has ________skills Conceptual
Specific skills needed to accomplish specialized activities such as drafting and welding are known as _________skills Technical
A manager with _______skills has the ability to deal effectively with people inside and outside the organization Interpersonal
A former CEO at International Telephone and Telegraph has a reputation for publicly humiliating subordinates who annoyed or disappointed them. This manager obviously needed to improve his ________ skills Interpersonal
Mondell’s lack of effective writing skills and his challenges in speaking to groups of people is causing stress in his job. He is becoming very aware that he needs to improve his _______skills Communication
Although Frank is not in top management, he is charismatic and well liked by others in his organization. Other employees often look to Frank to see how he reacts to new policies implemented by top management, and they follow his lead. Frank has _______ leadership in his organization Informal
Shyana has formal power in the Coffee Lovers, Ltd. organization while Sam has informal power. One of the primary differences between Shyana and Sam is that Shyana has ________ within the organizations while Sam does not Authority
Vice president, marketing — Regional sales manager — District manager — Sales supervisor represents a(n) Chain of command
Legal services and public affairs are ________ types of jobs, so they do not fit directly into the chain of command Advisory
The various tasks in IBM’s manufacturing plant are arranged so that one worker draws the wiring, another strengthens the wires, a third cuts them, a fourth inserts them, and a fifth seals them together. This is an example of job Specialization
A benefit of job specialization is that it Is easier to train new employees
When a worker has to learn only a specific, highly specialized task, that individual should be able to learn to do it efficiently. However, this efficiency could eventually become inhibited by job monotony and boredom. This situation could be alleviated through Job rotation
Grouping jobs into manageable units according to some reasonable scheme is known as Departmentalization
Location, product, function, and customer are common bases for a firm’s Departmentalization
A computer manufacturer is first divided into the following groups: Home Office/Personal Use, Small Business, Large Business, and Educational Institutions. Within each of these divisions, management is organized into finance, operations, marketing, and human resources. This company is organized first by ________, then by ________ Customer; Function
General Motors has separate divisions for Chevrolet, Pontiac, Oldsmobile, Buick, and Cadillac. This is an example of departmentalization by Product
A firm organized on the basis of retail customers and wholesale customers utilizes the concept of departmentalization by Customer
The assignment of part of a manager;s work authority to a worker is called Delegation
Janet is a runner for a large law firm. Her duties include purchasing supplies for the copy room. Janet was given permission by the office manager to sign credit-card receipts when making purchases. Janet has been given ________ to use the firm’s credit card Authority
The degree of centralization of an organization is based on the Delegation of authority
The more complex and uncertain a company’s environment, the more likely it is that the company will Decentralize the organization
A common characteristic of a centralized organization is Decision making by a few top-level managers
Rockwood International needs to make risky decisions on a daily basis. Therefore, its managers are likely to Centralize decision making
A biotechnology company is constantly faced with important decisions that are likely to have severe consequences on the future of the company. The top managers should Exercise centralized decision-making authority
The head of the marketing department of CBS Environmental, Inc., supervises twelve people in her department. This represents her Span of management
Zyquila is a manager in an organization where a great deal of interaction is required between herself and her workers and new problems arise frequently. Zyquila is likely to have A narrow span of control
Many organizations today are moving toward a(n)________ organization in an effort to get decisions made more quickly and action plans implemented more rapidly Flatter
A manager with few subordinates is said to have a Narrow span of control
A span of control may be wide when Few new problems are expected to arise
George Brown is a regional sales manager of Unisys, a large manufacturer of computer systems. As such, George is responsible for salespeople throughout the region, and he must interact with them frequently to solve problems. Which of the following descriptions is most characteristic of Unisys and its sales managers Narrow span of management control and tall organization height
A consulting manager at SAP America has a very side span of control. This is probably because the Manager and his or her subordinates are very competent
The number of layers, or levels, in a firm is referred to as the firm’s Organizational height
Generally speaking, a narrow span of management implies that the height of the organization will be ________; a wide span of management implies that the height of the organization will be ________ Tall; Flat
A small restaurant with wait staff that reports to staff managers who reports to a floor manager who report to the restaurant manager is a clear example of a __________ organizational structure Line
A basic difference between line managers and staff managers is that the line managers have ________ which staff managers rarely have Authority
When line managers in an organization encounter issues that a staff member with specialized expertise can assist with, the staff member they consult with has ________ authority Advisory
In an organization with a matrix structure, authority flows both Down and across
Airo Corporation has a traditional structure. It wants to change to a project structure that will allow more interaction among functional groups. Which structure would you suggest Matrix
Gio is in charge of making sure the raw steel brought into her company’s factory is turned into high-quality bearings for sale to customers. Gio is a(n) ________ manager Operations
John works for Texas Instruments. His task involve traveling to nearby colleges, interviewing students for hire after graduation, selecting certain ones to be invited for an office visit, and acquainting them with the facilities. He is in which phase of the HRM process Acquiring human resources
Activities that increase employees satisfaction such as surveys, employee communication programs, exit interviews, and fair treatment are all part of which phase of the human resources management process Maintaining human resources
Generally, human resources management is a responsibility shared by line managers and HRM specialists
Information on evolving technologies, industry staffing practices, projected economic trends, the particular company’s future business ventures, new products, and projected expansions or contractions of certain product lines can be helpful in predicting Human resource demans
When sales drop each summer at Vail Mountain Resorts, a high-quality destination ski area, the resort owners temporarily have too many employees to service the reduced number of tourists that enjoy the area during the warmer months. In this situation, the resorts most likely would Lay off workers
When people from a variety of different countries and educational and work experience backgrounds come together to work on a project, they often have varying perspectives on given issues. This benefits the company in the form of Better problem solving
Martin Enterprises wants to ensure that it thoroughly understands all of its jobs so that it can determine the qualifications each job demands. To do so, Martin would first Conduct job analysis
Gabriela wanted to know about the skills and experiences needed to qualify for a management position with JCPenny. Thus, he called and asked the personnel specialist to send him a job Description
When Foot Locker, a retailer of athletic shoes, wanted to study the various elements and requirements of the positions needed to staff a store in a large mall, it most likely began by Instituting a job analysis procedure
The process of attracting qualified job applicants is called Recruiting
Atlas Company pays workers $500 for recommendations that result in a hiring. In two years, the company has hired at least forty people through this program. Atlas Company is fulfilling its employment needs by using ________ as a recruiting source Employee referrals
All of the following are sources of external recruiting except Promotion of a current employee
You were asked to write a report to management indicating the primary advantage of external recruiting. You chose to focus on external recruiting’s abilities to ________ as its primary advantage Bring in new perspectives and varied background
One organization carefully observes candidates’ mannerisms, another uses gut feelings, and still another compares the candidates’ grade point averages when making a ________ decision Selection
Misumi wants to impress prospective employers with a summary of her background and qualifications for a management position. Her father, who is a businessperson, suggested sending a(n) Resume
The interview is part of Selection
Perhaps the most widely used selection technique is the Interview
People who can verify background information and provide personal evaluations of candidates References
What is cultural diversity, and why is it an important issue? It is differences among people in a workforce owing to race, ethnicity, religion, age, gender, and physical or learning abilities. It is important because it improves creativity and fresh view points for problem solving and decision making
To learn the exact nature of a job, we may use job analysis, a job description, and a job specification. For what purpose is each used? What information would a job description contain? A job specification? Job Analysis: Studying jobs to determine requirements. Job description: List of elements for a job–Duties, conditions, responsibilities. Job specification; List of qualifications to perform a job–Skills, abilities, education, experience
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Business Ethics Chapter 1 Quiz

The paradox of hedonism (or the paradox of selfishness) is that people who are exclusively concerned with their own interests tend to have happier and more satisfying lives than those who are concerned about other people. True
Which of the following characteristics distinguishes moral standards from other sorts of standards? moral standards take priority over other standards
Choose the statement that is a true reflection of moral beliefs Bystander apathy appears to result in part from diffusion of responsibility.
The benefits within moral standards are best seen in which statement? Professional codes are the rules that are supposed to govern the conduct of members of a given profession.
According to divine command theory, if stealing is wrong then it is wrong because:a. God forbids stealing because stealing is wrong.b. God leaves right and wrong up to humanity.c. Stealing is wrong only because God commands us not to steal.d. Our reason determines stealing to be wrong. C
The example of Huckleberry Finn shows:a. unlike most people, Huckleberry Finn lacked a conscience. b. we shouldn’t rely uncritically on what our conscience says.c. when in doubt, one should ignore one’s conscience.d. one should always obey one’s conscience. B
Our conscience evolved as we internalized the moral instructions of the parents or other authority figures who raised us as children. True
According to Tom Regan, our considered moral beliefs are those we hold only after we have made a conscientious effort (a) to attain maximum conceptual clarity, (b) to acquire all relevant information, (c) to think about the belief and its implications rationally, (d) impartially, and with the benefit of reflection, (e) coolly. True
Our relationship with the law is best described by which of the following?a. Violating the law is always immoral.b. The law is a completely adequate guide to the moral standards that we should follow.c. The law makes all immoral conduct illegal. d. To a significant extent, law codifies a society’s customs, norms, and moral values. D
A tangible truth about having moral principles is:a. business is fundamentally an amoral activity.b. if you do the right thing only because you think it will pay off, you’re not really motivated by moral concerns.c. morally responsible companies are rarely among the most profitable.d. moral behavior always pays off in strictly selfish terms. B
The famous experiments by social psychologist Solomon Asch showAnswers: a. the power of peer pressure has been greatly exaggerated. b. even temporary groups can pressure people to conform.c. the truth of utilitarianism.d. business organizations put more pressure on individual integrity than do other kinds of organization. B
Moral attitudes are best depicted by which of the following?a. As long as your conduct is legal, then it will be moral. b. Moral standards typically concern behavior that can be of serious consequence to human welfare.c. There is no distinction between morality in a broad sense and morality in a narrow sense.d. If you follow the rules of etiquette, your conduct will be moral. B
When ethical relativism is put into practice, it implies that:a. as societies evolve, their morality improves.b. in ethics, sometimes the minority is right.c. societies never share any moral values in common.d. we cannot say that slavery is wrong if the society in question believes it is right. D
Good moral judgments should be logical and:a. based on facts and acceptable moral principles.b. based on religion.c. beyond rational doubt.d. coincide with what most scientifically trained people think. A
When religion and morality are considered:a. the moral instructions of the world’s great religions are often general and imprecise.b. atheists are likely to be less moral than religious people.c. most people act rightly only because their religion tells them to.d. in practice, people who share a religion will agree on all moral questions. A
Ethical relativism supports the theory that:a. there are no moral values whatsoever.b. different societies have similar ideas about right and wrong. c. what is right is determined by what a culture or society says is right.d. morality is relative to the goal of promoting human well-being. C
Philosophical discussion of moral issues typically involves:a. the revision and modification of arguments.b. circular reasoning.c. polished rhetoric and skill at debate.d. determining what the majority thinks. A
The authors use the murder of Kitty Genovese to illustrate:a. bystander apathy.b. the paradox of hedonism.c. groupthink.d. ethical relativism. A
For philosophers, the most important issue is not where our moral principles came from, but:a. to what extent religion influences people’s moral beliefsb. how we acquired the beliefs we havec. the legal basis for acting morally d. whether those moral principles can be justified D
Choose the statement that gives the most accurate description of etiquette:a. etiquette refers to any special code of social behavior or courtesyb. the rules of etiquette are backed by statutory lawc. the rules of etiquette are a fundamental branch of moralityd. conformity with the rules of etiquette is sufficient for moral conduct A
Accepting a moral principle:a. is a purely intellectual act like accepting a scientific hypothesis. b. generally involves a desire to follow that principle for its own sake.c. is a religiously based act of faith.d. means you will never go against that principle. B
Proper logic states:a. a sound argument may have a false premise.b. a sound argument may have a false conclusion. c. all sound arguments are valid arguments.d. all valid arguments are sound arguments. C
Morality and self-interesta. are in basic, irreconcilable conflict.b. boil down to the same thing.c. can sometimes conflict.d. can never come into genuine conflict. C
If an argument is valid, thena. its conclusion must be true, if its premises are.b. the argument’s premises are true.c. the argument is sound.d. the argument’s conclusion must be true. A
Which statement is true concerning moral principles and self interests?a. Philosophers agree that morality is based on the commands of God.b. Statutes are laws applied in the English-speaking world before there were any common laws. c. Morality serves to restrain our purely self-interested desires so that we can all live together.d. “Groupthink” is a positive and necessary characteristic of all groups. C
The code or principles of conduct that a person acceptsAnswers: a. rarely guide his or her conduct in practice. b.can be distinguished from the person’s morality in a broader sense that includes his or her values, ideals, and aspirations.c. constitute the whole of his or her morality. B
Which philosopher referred to a bureaucracy as “rule by nobody”? Hannah Arendt
Which philosopher referred to a bureaucracy as “a circle from which no one can escape” ? Karl Marx
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Chapter 4 Document Makeover

The subject line of a business message should​ _____. clearly indicate the topic of the message
The opening of a business message using the direct approach must​ _____. state the main idea clearly
A knowledgeable business writer can help readers by​ _____. providing an organizational structure to the message
An​ efficient, well-organized business message​ _____. contains only relevant ideas
Even a​ well-organized business message needs a​ _____or it loses credibility. thorough proofreading
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Business Law questions, exam 2 (random quizlet found)

The bases of all torts are wrongs and compensations True
Logistics Trucking Company operates a fleet of fuel trucks. When one of the trucks is positioned to receive a load of biofuel, it strikes a storage tank owned by Metro Biofuel, Inc. For the cost of repairing the damage to the tank, Metro is most likely to be awarded compensatory damages
The purpose of tort law is to provide remedies for the violation of various protected interests True
A tortfeasor is one who wrongfully alleges that a tort has been committed False
Diego is arrested for a theft committed by someone who stole his identity. A court orders his release, but due to a police error in Diego’s paperwork, he is held in jail for a month. The police are most likely liable for False Imprisonment
From a computer in a distant location, Viktor searches Wilma’s personal computer without her permission. Viktor is most likely liable for invasion of privacy
Marcos wants to buy Lucia’s land, but she refuses to sell. Marcos begins using subpoenas, court orders, and other formal legal procedures in an unrelenting effort to force Lucia to sell. This is Abuse of process
Felix tells Genie, a prospective tenant, that the roof of the Valley View Apartments building does not leak when Felix knows that it does. This may give rise to an action for fraud, because the statement is one of a fact
ProHome Pest Exterminators Inc. advertises so effectively that the regular customers of its competitor Quick Pest Elimination Company patronize ProHome instead. This is ____
Normally, fraud occurs only when there is justifiable reliance on a true statement. false
Federal law prohibits the Federal Trade Commission from cooperating and sharing information with foreign agencies in investigating and prosecuting those involved in spamming. False
Usind a domain name that is an identical or similar to the trademark of another is legal False
Tech Outsourcing, Inc., registers a domain name that is the same as, or confusingly similar to, the trademark of Tech Resourcing Corporation and then offers to sell the domain name back to Tech Resourcing. This is cybersquatting
Using another’s trademark in a meta tag does not normally constitute trademark infringement, even if it is done without the owner’s permission. false
Rowan registers a domain name—sweetfriedpotatos.com—that is a misspelling of a popular brand—sweetfriedpotatoes.com. This is typosquatting
A claim of trademark dilution requires proof that consumers are likely to be confused by a connection between the unauthorized use and the mark. false
Employers cannot monitor employees’ electronic communications made in the ordinary course of business. false
Cyber torts are torts that arise from online conduct. true
To maintain a suit for the invasion of privacy, a person must have a reasonable expectation of privacy in the particular situation. true
Global Reach Corporation uses invisible files created on the computers, smartphones, and other mobile devices of visitors to its Web sites to track the users’ browsing activities. These files are cookies
A misdemeanor is a crime punishable only by a fine false
Thinking about killing someone constitutes the crime of attempted murder. false
Picking pockets is not robbery True
A person who commits larceny can be sued under tort law. true
A person’s intent to return embezzled property—or its actual return—is not a defense to the crime of embezzlement. True
A kickback for a special favor or service is a form of bribery in some situations. True
Ordinarily, “ignorance of the law” or a mistaken idea about what the law requires is a valid defense to criminal liability. False
Annalee, an employee of Byron & Byron, Certified Public Accountants, is arrested at work. A grand jury issues a formal charge against Annalee for embezzlement. This charge is an indictment
Posing as Visa Bank, Walt e-mails Paulina, asking her to update her credit-card information through a link in the e-mail. She clicks on the link and types in the data, which Walt promptly sells to Ilana. This is phishing
Via the Internet, Lok sabotages the computer system of Metro Water Commission, a municipal water supplier, so that Metro’s pumping system breaks down, halting the delivery of water to Metro’s customers. Lok is a cyberterrorist
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Venture module 4 quiz

Your friend is developing a market plan for her new business what should she put in this plan All of the above
Which statement is the best description of a vaule proposition The features and benefits that make the product or business unique
What is the main purpose of developing a business pitch To briefly share the most important info about ur business to people in an engaging way
Which of the following is probably NOT an important point to include in a business pitch A detailed description of the meaning behind the company’s name
Why is it important to conduct market research on your target audience before building your marketing plan You need to consider who your potentiometer customers are before deciding on marketing strategies
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BUS 130 Test 2

Which of the following is typically included in the PLANNING STAGE of writing an effective business message? Question 1 options:A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) making the message easy to read C) making the message easy to navigate D) ensuring that the communication is fair E) identifying the primary message and key points E) identifying the PRIMARY message and key POINTS
Which of the following is typically included in the DRAFTING STAGE of writing an effective business message?Question 2 options:A) Setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) double-checking everything C) sending the message to be proofread D) identifying the primary message and key points E) ensuring the communication is fair A) SETTING a positive and other-oriented tone
Which of the following is something an EXCELLENT BUSINESS writer would do?Question 3 options: A) spend more time planning than drafting B) decide on a message-centered approach C) do the audience analysis during the drafting stage D) do a last-minute review of his or her work E) maintain an author-centered tone A) SPEND MORE TIME planning than drafting
ALAN is mentoring Pat, a younger colleague, in how to be a better business writer. As Pat was writing her last memo, she did the following things. Which one will Alan tell her she needs to change?Question 4 options: A) Pat addressed the needs of her audience in the memo. B) Pat spent a long time planning before she started to write. C) Pat applied the FAIR test to the memo when she reviewed it. D) Pat made sure the memo is easy to read and easy to navigate. E) Pat drew primarily on her own opinions and expertise. E) PAT DREW primarily on her own opinions and expertise.
Which of the following is one of the three-components of the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?Question 5 options: A) message review B) message structuring C) idea analysis D) inductive structure E) analysis of the medium B) MESSAGE structuring
Which of the following is the FIRST STEP in the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?Question 6 options:A) idea development B) message structuring C) audience analysis D) message review E) idea analysis C) Audience Analysis
How should writers CONSIDER the priorities of their targeted audience during the planning process for effective business messages?Question 7 options: A) Do not consider the priorities as they tend to fluctuate. B) Recognize that priorities shift less often than values. C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks. D) Refer to the enduring beliefs and ideals that individuals in the audience hold. E) Remember that priorities remain constant for each individual. C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.
In the COURSE of creating an effective business message, excellent business thinkers are most likely toQuestion 8 options: A) gather information from one strong source rather than from a variety of sources. B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions. C) begin jotting down a rough draft right away to capture their ideas. D) encourage one-way linear thinking and a rigid approach to business problems. E) avoid using the other-oriented tone in their text. B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions.
FACTS are statements thatQuestion 9 options: A) are subjective and differ from situation to situation. B) are based on assumptions. C) can be relied on with a fair amount of certainty. D) are fictitious in nature. E) are inherently ambiguous in nature. C) can be RELIED on with a fair amount of certainty.
Analyzing a business PROBLEM typically involvesQuestion 10 options: A) ignoring audience constraints. B) deducing conclusions from facts. C) imposing your priorities on the situation. D) exaggerating the problem. E) being flexible and not taking positions. B) DEDUCING conclusions from facts.
At glaciers inc.., the management wanted to introduce a new medical insurance program for its employees. They appointed Laura to analyze the pros and cons of the idea. Laura conducted thorough research and prepared a report based on her findings. Before doing any writing, she stated her view in a SHORT, MEMORABLE STATEMENT of less than 15 words, known as a(n)Question 11 options: A) call to action. B) primary message. C) thesis statement. D) overarching theme. E) supporting sentence. B) primary message
For the past couple of months, many employees working at Exterior Inc. have been quitting their jobs. Jason from the human resources department is given the responsibility of analyzing the reasons behind this problem. After conducting a thorough research, Jason finds that the employees were not happy with their salary and hence had no motivation to work. How will Jason structure his MESSAGE if he wants to use the deductive, or direct, APPROACH?Question 12 options: A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to Action
Most business ARGUMENTS employ a deductive approach. When employing this approach you are most likely toQuestion 13 options: A) avoid stating your position regarding any business issue. B) provide supporting reasons first followed by the primary message. C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a recommendation. D) begin by making a call to action for your audience to follow. E) begin by stating the supporting reasons followed by your call to action. C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a RECOMMENDATION.
The DIFFERENCE between the DEDUCTIVE approach and the INDUCTIVE approach is thatQuestion 14 options: A) in the inductive approach, the order of supporting ideas is unimportant. B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message. C) in the deductive approach, the supporting reasons follow the call to action. D) in the deductive approach, positions are based on assumptions, not facts. E) in the deductive approach, the business argument concludes with the primary message. B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message.
What do the deductive approach and inductive approach to STRUCTURING business messages have in COMMON?Question 15 options: A) In both, the call to action comes in the middle. B) In both, the supporting ideas come last. C) In both, the arrangement of supporting ideas is important. D) In both, the primary message comes first. E) In both, the call to action must be 15 words or less. C) In both, the arrangement of SUPPORTING ideas is important.
OMAR is the marketing manager at PLM. In his market survey, he finds that customers are not happy with PLM’s inefficient customer service. How will Omar STRUCTURE his message if he wants to use the inductive, or indirect, approach?Question 16 options: A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons C) lay out the SUPPORTING reasons in careful order; state the primary message
Lorraine, the HR manager at BGH Garden Pot Manufacturing, analyzes the problem of increasing employee turnover and concludes that upgrading the employee benefit programs would help control the situation. While preparing her report, Lorraine states that upgrading the company’s employee benefit program would reduce employee turnover because a nearby large investment firm used the same strategy to solve a similar problem. However Lorraine’s message failed to convince the decision makers at BGH. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason behind this failure?Question 17 options: A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument D) weak analogy
JORGE, the shipping manager at Durable Products, writes a MEMO proposing that that they stop using RoadHog Trucking Company and ship everything by L.B. Haines. The reason he gives is that two of the accounts that have been shipping by L.B. Haines during the last year increased their orders by more than 10%, so he is certain that switching trucking firms will cause other accounts to grow too. The executives of the company do not accept Jorge’s suggestion. Why was his memo unconvincing?Question 18 options: A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) either/or logic D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument E) faulty cause/effect argument
SALINA, the expeditor at RingPro Gasket Manufacturer, writes a memo asking her manager to buy her a new computerized system for tracking customer orders. She claims that if she does not get this system, chronically late deliveries will ensue. Her manager turns down her request. Salina made the MISTAKE of usingQuestion 19 options: A) either/or logic. B) an indirect structure. C) an unsupported generalization. D) a weak analogy. E) you-voice. A) either/or logic.
Chris, an editorial manager at Better Textbooks, Inc., wants to ELIMINATE his copy EDITING department and outsource the work to a company in India. In his proposal, he states, “Doing so will revolutionize our workflow and save us untold thousands of dollars.” The EDITORIAL director calls Chris into his office and informs him that his memo is not credible. What mistake did Chris make?Question 20 options: A) either/or logic B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument B) EXAGGERATION
DERIK has been given the responsibility of analyzing how counseling programs can reduce problem behavior among employees in his company. After much research, he discovers that counseling has several benefits. Employees exhibiting problem behavior often respond positively to counseling. They are likely to be more motivated and meet performance standards after the counseling sessions. Considering this information, identify the statement that clearly EXAGGERATES what Derik has found.Question 21 options: A) Employees exhibiting problem behavior are most likely to respond positively to counseling. B) Counseling always dramatically improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior. C) Counseling can contribute toward increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior. D) The issue of problem behavior among employees can be improved through counseling. E) Counseling is one of the ways of increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior. B) Counseling ALWAYS DRAMATICALLY improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior.
______ is the overall evaluation that A reader perceives the writer to have toward the reader and the message content.Question 22 options: A) Tone B) Framework C) Structure D) Layout E) Outline A) Tone
In all business messages, communicators should ideally AIM AT Question 23 options: A) effectively using either/or arguments. B) slanting facts to their benefit. C) projecting positivity. D) appropriately exaggerating facts. E) avoiding the other-oriented approach. C) projecting POSITIVITY.
In order to make business messages more positive, business writers should focus on actions they can accomplish and demonstrate a REALISTIC optimism. However they should be carefulQuestion 24 options: A) not to set unrealistic expectations. B) to avoid diplomatic terms. C) not to use too-strong analogies. D) to avoid generalizations. E) not to send meta messages. A) not to set unREALISTIC expectations.
Carlton finds that a geographic restructuring would have a positive effect on his insurance company and increase its efficiency. He draws up a report for the board of directors in which he mentions that separate departments should be set up for each of the company’s 10 sales territories. Which of the following statements is most likely to increase the positivity of HIS PROPOSITION?Question 25 options: A) Let me know if you want to work on changing the structure of the company. B) Using a geographic structure will not guarantee that the company’s productivity increases. C) Geographic restructuring is not likely to reduce the company’s overall costs. D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically. E) A geographic structure might possibly have a positive effect on the company. D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically.
In CONTENT and form, a business message should typicallyQuestion 26 options: A) avoid any form of self-centeredness. B) exaggerate facts. C) avoid using diplomatic terms. D) avoid using strong analogies. E) slant facts skillfully. A) avoid any form of self-CENTEREDness.
Extensive use of the I-VOICE in a business messageQuestion 27 options: A) fails to indicate that the writer cares about the interest of the audience. B) increases the positivity of the message. C) reveals that the writer has slanted the facts. D) emphasizes that the writer understands the concerns of the reader. E) indicates that the writer uses faulty either/or logic. A) fails to indicate that the writer CARES about the interest of the audience.
The use of WE-VOICE in a business messageQuestion 28 options: A) fails to reflect the interests of the audience. B) indicates that the writer has not reached any conclusions. C) decreases the credibility of the message. D) emphasizes the writer’s shared interests with the reader. E) indicates that the writer is slanting the message. D) EMPHASIZES the writer’s SHARED interests with the reader.
Which of the following is most likely to show that the writer of a business message has CONCERN for the audience?Question 29 options: A) relying heavily on the I-voice B) presenting exaggerated facts to the audience C) respecting the autonomy of the reader D) presenting slanted facts to the audience E) giving credit to any sources used C) RESPECTING the autonomy of the reader
Sending MIXED SIGNALS is most likely toQuestion 30 options: A) result in positive meta messages. B) increase the flexibility of encoding and decoding. C) cause the reader to feel confused. D) resolve the conflict between the content and tone of a message. E) increase the credibility of a message. C) cause the reader to feel CONFUSED.
In order to ENSURE the COMPLETENESS of a business message, one shouldQuestion 31 options: A) be specific. B) avoid empty phrases. C) avoid redundancies. D) control paragraph length. E) use action verbs. A) be SPECIFIC.
In the context of creating a complete BUSINESS MESSAGE, which of the following is true?Question 32 options: A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a business document down. B) Using action verbs focuses on the goal of coordinating action in the workplace and livens up your writing. C) Using longer, more unusual words to “sound smart” can increase the credibility of your message. D) Using the passive voice allows for faster processing by the readers, because most people naturally think in that structure. E) Relying on parallel language can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver. A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a BUSINESS DOCUMENT down.
Which of the following GUIDELINES should be FOLLOWED to ensure that you are creating a complete business message?Question 33 options: A) Use longer, more unusual words to “sound smart” and increase the credibility of your message. B) Avoid parallel language as it can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver. C) Include all the information you need by eliminating as much white space as possible. D) Plan, write, and review your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant. E) Use the active voice to avoid blaming others or sounding too bossy. D) PLAN, WRITE AND REVIEW your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant.
Which of the following is most likely to NEGATIVELY INFLUENCE readers’ perceptions of your CREDIBILITY?Question 34 options: A) long paragraphs B) inaccurate statements C) generous white space D) passive voice E) parallel language B) INACCURATE statements
Which of the following is most likely to POSITIVELY INFLUENCE your readers’ perceptions of your credibility?Question 35 options: A) being wordy B) being specific C) using buzzwords D) starting sentences with “There are” E) using prepositional phrases B) being specific
Neta believes it is a good idea to write business messages using generalities that will appeal to a broad readership. How is this practice likely to AFFECT Neta’s readers?Question 36 options: A) They may doubt her competence. B) They will read the message carefully. C) They will find the information they need. D) They will be assured that she is not hiding facts. E) They will focus on the primary message. A) They may doubt her competence.
Akram recently learned that his manager believes he was trying to hide the truth about his department’s EXPENSES in his last report. How can Akram revise his report to avoid giving that impression?Question 37 options: A) Shorten his paragraphs. B) Avoid using buzzwords. C) Use specific numbers and facts. D) Avoid using unfamiliar words. E) Decrease his use of white space. C) Use specific NUMBERS and facts.
The management at Lavender GARMET MANUFACTURING company conducted a survey with the intention of standardizing their employees’ productivity to increase company profits. Based on their findings, they set their standards and circulated the following instructions, “Every employee should manufacture as many shirts AS POSSIBLE.” However, this failed to clearly deliver the intended message of standardization. Which of the following would correct the problem?Question 38 options: A) Every employee should maximize the workflow of his or her station. B) As many shirts as possible should be made by each employee. C) All workers and employees should manufacture as many shirts or garments as possible. D) Every employee should manufacture a minimum of three shirts an hour. E) Needless to say, every employee should manufacture as many shirts as possible every day. D) Every employee should manufacture A MINIMUM of three shirts an hour.
In the context of business messages, CONCISENESS impliesQuestion 39 options: A) removing relevant information. B) omitting needless words. C) omitting parallel structure. D) removing white space. E) removing paragraph breaks. B) omitting NEEDLESS words.
One way to solve the problem of overly LENGTHY paragraphs is toQuestion 40 options: A) include more figures of speech. B) focus on one idea or topic in each paragraph. C) use passive voice instead of active. D) start more sentences with “There is.” E) replace verbs with prepositional phrases. B) FOCUS on one idea or topic in each paragraph.
Julio has a long paragraph that describes the TWO MAIN CAUSES of employee absenteeism and gives a suggestion to address each cause. Ideally, how many paragraphs does Julio need to cover this material?Question 41 options: A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five D) four (INTRO, CAUSE 1, CAUSE 2, CON.)
As a rule of thumb, for ROUTINE MESSAGES, the sentence length should be no more thanQuestion 42 options: A) 8 words. B) 15 words. C) 20 words. D) 25 words. E) 30 words. B) 15 words
Consider the following statement: “Employee managers can use our MOTIVATIONAL tools to MOTIVATE their employees to increase productivity.” The best way to make this statement concise is byQuestion 43 options: A) changing the passive voice. B) removing empty phrases. C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb. D) starting with “It is” or “There are.” E) removing any redundant words. E) removing any REDUNDANT words.
Consider the statement: “As most of you know, Mega Manufacturing had its most profitable year ever last year.” One way to make this statement more concise is byQuestion 44 options: A) changing the passive voice. B) removing empty phrases. C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb. D) starting with “It is” or “There are.” E) removing any redundant words. B) removing empty phrases.
It becomes easier for YOUR readers to process the information YOU present when youQuestion 45 options: A) match your writing style to the way your readers think and talk. B) use prepositional phrases extensively as they increase the clarity of the message. C) choose long and obscure words to pique their curiosity. D) avoid using parallel language, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the information provided. E) include a lot of text in your message and very little white space. A) MATCH YOUR writing style to the way YOUR readers think and talk.
Which statement about active voice and passive voice is true?Question 46 options: A) The active voice diverts attention from the doer. B) People tend to think in a doer-action-object pattern. C) The active voice is best when you do not want to attribute blame. D) People tend to sound bossy when using the passive voice. E) The passive voice places the object first. B) People tend to think in a DOER-action-object pattern.
People are most likely to process information QUICKLY when writers useQuestion 47 options: A) prepositional phrases. B) action verbs. C) the passive voice. D) complex words. E) long sentences. B) ACTION verbs.
To create a more NATURAL writing style and improve the ease of reading, a writer should useQuestion 48 options: A) passive verbs. B) parallel language. C) the passive voice. D) figures of speech. E) buzzwords. B) parallel language.
Consider the following sentence: “CEO Mike Maloney regrets to announce that PharmCo will be downsizing at the end of September.” Which of the following actions would improve the ease of reading?Question 49 options: A) Cut the prepositional phrase “at the end of September.” B) Change “at the end of September” to “at the end of the third quarter.” C) Change “PharmCo” to “PharmCo Drug and Pharmaceutical Company.” D) Change the buzzword “downsizing” to “laying off employees.” E) Change “CEO Mike Maloney” to “The CEO of PharmCo.” D) Change the buzzword “downsizing” to “laying off employees.”
Using the ACTIVE voice while writing business messagesQuestion 50 options: A) diverts the attention from the subject. B) makes the writer sound less bossy. C) allows for faster processing of the business message. D) makes the message difficult to navigate. E) is useful when the writer wants to avoid assigning blame. C) allows for FASTER processing of the business message.
The use of FAMILIAR words in business messages is most likely toQuestion 51 options: A) distract attention from the message. B) decrease the credibility of the message. C) cause the readers’ attention to wander because of boredom. D) decrease the specificity of the message. E) help the readers to process the information easily. E) HELP the readers to process the information EASILY.
Which statement about BUZZWORDS is true?Question 52 options: A) They make text more active. B) They are trite due to overuse. C) They have very technical meanings. D) They shorten the length of the message. E) They improve a message’s accuracy. B) They are trite due to OVERUSE.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of figures of speech, such as idioms and metaphors, in business writing?Question 53 options: A) They should be avoided because they lack specificity. B) They send the signal that the writer is out of touch with the audience. C) They are an effective way to write more concisely. D) They should be avoided because they are too I-centered. E) They are an effective way to make a message more natural. A) They should be AVOIDED because they LACK SPECIFICITY.
Which of the following is most likely to improve the ease of navigation in INFORMATION-RICH and COMPLEX messages?Question 54 options: A) using headings to convey the contents of sections B) avoiding the use of numbered or bulleted lists C) using several different font styles in the document D) using a new style of formatting for each section E) avoiding the use of too much white space A) using headings to convey the CONTENTS of sections
For most written business communications, the FIRST CONSIDERATION should be toQuestion 55 options: A) present the message in a visually appealing manner. B) get the message across in an easy-to-read manner. C) select the facts in a persuasive manner. D) construct the message in passive voice. E) demonstrate how much of an expert you are. B) GET THE MESSAGE ACROSS in an easy-to-read manner.
Which of the following choices is a COMPONENT of the REVIEWING PROCESS?Question 56 options: A) audience analysis B) identifying the primary message C) determining the key points D) determining the message structure E) conducting the FAIR test E) CONDUTING the FAIR test
In the context of the reviewing process, the “R” in the FAIR test stands for _____.Question 57 options: A) revision B) respect C) relevancy D) redundancy E) repetition B) respect
Which task are you most likely to do during the FINAL pass of PROOFREADING?Question 58 options: A) Check for grammatical errors. B) Look for typographical mistakes. C) Imagine how the audience will respond. D) Ask yourself if you are confident in your facts. E) See if you have made logical errors. B) LOOK for typographical mistakes.
Kwame has written a memo expressing his concern that the company has opened itself up to a DISCRIMINATION SUIT because it sponsors a men’s softball team but not a women’s sports team. Which of the following people should Kwame ask to give feedback about the wording of his memo before he sends it to the executive committee?Question 59 options: A) a colleague in the Finance Department B) a colleague in the Legal Department C) a colleague in the Purchasing Department D) a colleague in the Shipping Department E) a colleague in the Public Relations Department B) a colleague in the LEGAL Department
Ashley has written a report proposing that her company subsidize employees who take PUBLIC transportation. One of her main supporting points is that the program would help the company’s reputation because it is a green initiative. Which of the following people should Ashley ask for feedback about that part of the proposal?Question 60 options: A) an executive in the Finance Department B) an executive in the Legal Department C) an executive in the Human Resources Department D) an executive in the Research and Development Department E) an executive in the Public Relations Department E) an executive in the PUBLIC Relations Department
When CHOOSING a communication channel, ______ refers to the degree to which communications can be planned and recorded, thus allowing strategic message development.Question 61 options: A) richness B) immediacy C) constraint D) coordination E) control E) control
Angel PREFERS written communication because she can BRAINSTORM, DRAFT, EDIT, revise, and otherwise develop her message before delivering it. Which aspect of communication does she value?Question 62 options: A) permanence B) immediacy C) planning D) richness E) coordination C) planning
Bao is conducting a study that compares the cost of KEEPING print messages on file versus storing digital messages in the cloud. What aspect of communications relates to the storage of messages?Question 63 options: A) coordination B) planning C) constraint D) permanence E) richness D) permanence
Rick is trying to schedule a video teleconference with colleagues at several locations. To do so, he needs to coordinate their SCHEDULES and also CHECK TO SEE if the company needs to invest in any additional resources to make it happen. By addressing coordination and resource issues, he is dealing withQuestion 64 options: A) constraint. B) control. C) immediacy. D) permanence. E) richness. A) constraint
Which of the following deals with how QUICKLY someone is able to give feedback during communication?Question 65 options: A) coordination B) immediacy C) cue D) permanence E) richness B) immediacy
Maya’s virtual team includes editors in the United States, designers in Italy, and fact checkers in India. Maya wants the team to discuss the development process for their next book. Which communication channel will best allow team members to consider what they say, to respond in a way that is comfortable, and to fit the DISCUSSION IN THEIR SCHEDULES?Question 66 options: A) a conference call B) a videoconference C) an electronic discussion thread D) a series of print memos E) a series of one-to-one phone calls C) an electronic discussion thread
Which of the following facilitates a one-stop work space containing project and meeting information, SHARED FILES, and COMMUNICATION platforms?Question 67 options: A) texting B) written messages C) webinar D) social networking E) email D) social networking
Ismail needs to let Felicia know that the FUNDS FOR HER PET PROJECT have been SLASHED. Which communication channel should Ismail use?Question 68 options: A) email B) written message C) social networking D) texting E) spoken communication E) spoken communication
Craig is the sales manager at Blaize Supersports and has a 20-member sales team. During an average day, Craig receives about 115 emails and sends out 75 emails. James, a salesperson at the store, is typing an email to Craig. James wants to take a week off to spend time with his family. Which of the following is true concerning the SUB JECT LINE of James’s email?Question 69 options: A) The email does not need a subject line because it comes from one of Craig’s staff. B) It should include only the number of days and dates of his vacation. C) It should include James’s name, department details, and employee identification number. D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as “James requests time off.” E) It should include an attention-getting phrase such as “Urgent Staff Issue.” D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as “James requests time off.
Judging only by LENGTH, which of the following is the best subject line for an email?Question 70 options: A) Why? B) Last month C) The reason why we should consider implementing this marketing plan is its many benefits. D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00 E) So, here it goes D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be placed in the SUBJECT LINE of an email?Question 71 options: A) an expected action B) a signature block C) a list of attachments D) a professional tagline E) the recipient’s name A) an expected action
Which of the following is most likely to be included in the SIGNATURE BLOCK of an email?Question 72 options: A) a list of attachments B) an expected action C) statistical data D) contact details E) the names of all the recipients D) contact details
Which of the following GUIDELINES best ensures that your email is easy to read?Question 73 options: A) Include a subject line that is at least 20 words long. B) Make each paragraph in your message at least 80 words long. C) Avoid the inclusion of attachments. D) Avoid stating expected actions explicitly. E) Provide a descriptive signature block. E) Provide a descriptive signature block.
When Sherry sends task-oriented emails to colleagues, she always tells them the deadline for the tasks and details about when she is available to talk or meet. What conclusion are Sherry’s colleagues likely to draw from this?Question 74 options: A) Sherry holds an important place in the organization. B) Sherry is arrogant and bossy. C) Sherry respects their time and other commitments. D) Sherry packs unnecessary information in her messages. E) Sherry has leadership potential. C) Sherry RESPECTS their time and other commitments.
What should you do when you CANNOT RESPOND to a request made in an email?Question 75 options: A) Log off the system so the sender will assume that you are offline. B) Set up an automated response to say that you are out of town. C) Inform the sender that you are busy and cannot reply straightaway. D) Reply immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full. E) Ignore the email for now and reply when you can. D) REPLY immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full.
Paul always hits “reply to all” whenever he answers a team email, even if the email was a question posed by one other person and directed only to Paul. When he initiates an email about his project, he sends it to everyone in his DEPARTMENT. Judging only from this information, what impact does Paul have on his department’s communications?Question 76 options: A) He is spreading confidential information to unauthorized people. B) He is making everyone in his department feel included as part of the team. C) He is helping make the department work more efficiently. D) He is ensuring that each person on the team clearly knows his or her assignment. E) He is contributing to email overload in his department. E) He is contributing to EMAIL OVERLOAD in his DEPARTMENT.
Which of the following is a reason why greetings and names are OMITTED from emails?Question 77 options: A) People do not like being greeted or having their names used very often. B) Omitting names and greetings saves space and keeps many emails on one screen. C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of memos, which traditionally omit names and greetings. D) Most people are emotionally uninvolved at work and are not inclined toward greeting others. E) Since emails are typically forwarded to several other people, it is inappropriate to name only one recipient. C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of MEMOS, which traditionally OMIT names and greetings.
Which of the following is an example of the neutrality effect?Question 78 options: A) George writes an email in which he intends to express a negative emotion, but readers decode it as neutral. B) Sue writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral. C) Ali writes an email in which he intends to express a neutral emotion, and readers decode it as neutral. D) Rand writes an email that he intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as negative. E) Cora writes an email that she intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as positive. B) SUE writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.
Clement, a customer service representative at Sarah’s Supermart, has a tough time handling customers during his first week on the job. Carlo, Clement’s colleague, guides him through this difficult period. Afterward, Clement writes Carlo an email to thank him warmly for his help. Carlo NEITHER REACTS NOR REPLIES. Carlo’s behavior is an example ofQuestion 79 options: A) negativity effect. B) neutrality effect. C) active incivility. D) defusing. E) constraint. B) neutrality effect.
Dave sends an email to his colleague, Stan, asking for important details about an ongoing project. Stan is on a business trip and finds no time to reply to all of Dave’s queries. Dave wrongly perceives that Stan is ignoring him. Which of the following should Dave do?Question 80 options: A) Because Stan is indulging in cyber silence, Dave should retort with flames. B) Dave should inform their manager about his complaints against Stan. C) Because Stan is on a business trip, Dave should not bother him even if the project falls behind. D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply. E) Dave should ignore Stan’s emails when Stan finally replies. D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply.
One possible negative effect of texting is thatQuestion 81 options: A) the brevity of texts can make them sound bossy. B) texts are an inherently serious channel. C) texts do not convey meta messages. D) the format of texts is not good for positive news. E) texts cannot be sent to a group. A) the brevity of texts can make them sound BOSSY.
Hannah is in the middle of writing a report, and she does not want to disrupt the flow of her work by walking over to the department bookcase to double check the name of their main competitor’s product. She decides to text Joe, who sits next to the bookcase, to ask him to do it. Because of repeated incidents like this, Hannah is likely to be seen asQuestion 82 options: A) efficient. B) a team player. C) a contributor. D) busy. E) a taker. E) a taker.
Frequent incoming messages canQuestion 83 options: A) increase productivity. B) increase attention spans. C) reduce creativity. D) reduce stress. E) improve civility. C) reduce creativity.
Which of the following can help keep email-induced distractions at bay?Question 84 options: A) checking your messages once an hour B) checking your messages at the end of the day C) checking your messages once a week and using an automated message to indicate that D) checking your messages just two to four times a day E) checking your messages constantly to keep updated on the latest information D) checking your messages just two to four times a day
Why are COMPANIES like Google and Microsoft joining the Overload RESEARCH Group?Question 85 options: A) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of individuals. B) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of companies. C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many e-interruptions. D) It is a service that searches a company’s emails to reduce overload by destroying duplicates. E) It is an organization trying to train workers to have better attention spans. C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many E-INTERRUPTIONS.
How is productivity affected when employees multitask?Question 86 options: A) Productivity increases by up to 80 percent. B) Productivity increases by up to 40 percent. C) Productivity remains the same. D) Productivity drops by up to 40 percent. E) Productivity drops by up to 85 percent. D) Productivity DROPS by up to 40 percent.
Which of the following would help to REDUCE e-interruptions?Question 87 options: A) checking digital messages six to eight times a day at random B) turning on an automatic message that you are not answering emails all day C) replying immediately to all messages to get them out of the way D) using rich channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely E) adding colleagues to an email chain so they can answer the messages D) using RICH channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely
When preparing for a business phone call, you should do many of the same things you do forQuestion 88 options: A) an email. B) a meeting. C) texting. D) a webinar. E) social media. B) a meeting.
Which of the following is a helpful guideline for phone conversations with business colleagues?Question 89 options: A) Begin discussing business issues immediately after saying hello. B) To keep a formal tone, avoid using the other person’s name. C) Multitask as long as you can do so without the other person suspecting. D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties. E) To avoid wasting your colleagues’ time, end without social niceties. D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties.
Which of the following is a helpful tip for using webcams during a group video call?Question 90 options: A) Make sure your background shows several objects relevant to the conversation. B) Wear casual clothing that day to appear friendlier. C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible. D) Be careful to tone down your facial expressions and gestures. E) Sit slightly to one side so you can display visual aids if needed. C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible.
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Business Flashcards

Business final

An Advertisement in which the benefits of using Advil instead of Tylenol are discussed is _____ advertising Comparative
Which advertising medium is the Most selective? Direct mail
The newest advertising medium is The internet
The positioning of a product is the development of a product image is consumers mind, relative to competing products.
All of the following are categories of promotion except. Managerial relations
Which of the following is true about marketing messages and social media? Social media marketing messages are not like traditional marketing messages.
For most companies, all except ________ are some of the popular objectives in regard to a social media Increasing profitability
Ashley wants to increase the profits of her e-business. What two ways can she accomplish her goals of increasing profits? Cutting back on expenses and increasing sales
Money that an electronics retailer receives through the online sales of extended warranty plans provides an _______ for the company? Revenue stream
using data about buying preferences and customer profiles allows managements to do which of the following. all the above.
Resources that a firm own are called assets
Debts owned by a business are called liabilities
If total liabilities were subtracted from total assets the residual value would be owners equity
A summary of the assets, liabilities and owners equity is(it’s also called the statement of financial position) balance sheet
An_______ is a summary of firm’s revenues and expenses during a specified accounting period, such as a year. income statement.
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Business Flashcards

Business Principles – Chapter 5

The failure rate for franchises is lower than other business ventures because of: 1) financial advice and assistance 2) nationally recognized names
In franchise, having management support from the franchisor is a(n) _____ whereas the coattail is effect is considered a ______ advantage, disadvantage
In evaluating the market for a franchise a study must made to determine if your product has a ______ in your territory at the _____ you want to charge market, price
Corporations can rase large amount of money, take advantage of economies o scale and hire experts in all areas of operation. This can be summarized as _____ advantage size
Select all the advantages of the partnership form of business 1) pooled skills2) more financial resources3) longer survival
_____ do not pay taxes when submitting the organization’s tax return to the Internal Revenue Service. partners
Corporations shield their stockholders from unlimited liability and allow them to share in the: profits generated by the firm
Perpetual life for a corporation means that the death of one owner does not _____ the corporation. terminate
This is considered an advantage of corporations ease of transfer of ownership
The paperwork needed to start a corporation is extensive but a corporation must also keep detailed _____ records documenting all financial transactions in detail financial
Double taxation of a corporation occurs because the company pays tax on_____ and then individual shareholders pay income tax on the dividends they receive income
Unlike an LLC, conventional and S corporations’ stockholders can ____ their shares as they wish sell
The ______ of a member can cause LLCs to dissolve automatically death
Franchise are important to the _____ because of the number of new businesses started and jobs created. economy
An entrepreneur would join a _______ if they are uncomfortable starting their business from scratch. franchise
Select the reasons why size is an advantage of the corporation 1) acquire the latest equipment 2) build modern facilities3) diversify through acquisition 4) attract expert for hire
a ____ _____ means that a corporation’s existence will not terminate if one or more owners die perpetual life
Except for states like Delaware and Nevada, _____ creates a disadvantage to incorporating extensive paperwork
When the corporation pays a tax on its profits and individual stockholders each pay tax on dividends distributed by the corporation it is called: double taxation
Although members may choose to reconstitute an LLC after it dissolves, limited ___ ____ is considered a disadvantage of this form of business life span
Which statements are accurate as related to corporate taxation? stockholders pay income tax on the dividends they receive double taxation occurs
Funds available for a sole proprietorship are limited to: what the owner can provide
Some co-ops ask _____ to work for a number of hours a month as a part of their membership duties members
Flexible distribution of profits and losses is considered an advantage of an LLC because: profits/losses do not have to be distributed in proportion to the money each person invests
Select the reasons a business might change ownership form 1) adding a partner to the firm2) seeking limited liability3) dropping a partner from the firm
All of the following are advantages of partnerships except: partnerships have unlimited liabilities for the debts incurred by the business.
___________ of company profits is considered an advantage of a sole proprietorship retention
In a sole proprietorship, any debts or damages incurred by the business are your personal debts and you must pay them. The disadvantage is known as: unlimited liability
A LLC has the choice of taxation and can be taxed as a(n) ____ or as a corporation partnership
Select ways an LLP deals with liability for partners 1) partners are not held liable for each other’s actions 2) when a partner is sued individually for malpractice, it doe snot affect other partners. 3) liability is limited to losing only personal assets directly related to personal acts.
An advantage of cooperatives is that they: increase the economic power of members.
If the owner of a sole proprietorship wants to incorporate, the following disadvantages must be considered: 1) cost of incorporation 2) double taxation
Some people dislike the notion of owners, managers, workers, and buyers being separate individuals with separate goals. To meet their needs, they have formed: cooperatives
Burger King and Gymboree were publicly traded companies until a group of stock holders regained all the firms’ stock in order to regain control. This is referred to as _____ a firm______ taking, private
Limited liability is considered an advantage of forming an LLC because: personal assets are protected.
What are the advantages of the LLC form of organization? 1) flexible ownership rules2) limited liability 3) choice of taxation
A corporation is formally formed with: articles of incorporation and bylaws
A limited liability partnership limits the liability of limited partners to their: initial investment
Being owned by those using the products of a firm rather than simply being a shareholder is what makes a ______ unique cooperative
When analyzing which type of merger a firm uses to grow we can classify them by whether they are: 1) in the same industry2) different industries3) different levels of an industry
Among the questions to ask before franchising internationally is: 1) can you support global partners?2) will you intellectual property be protected?3) are you able to adapt to franchise regulations in other countries?
The limited liability partnership ensure that the limited partner’s _____ assets are not at risk. personal
In addition to the articles of incorporation, a corporation has _____ which describes how the firms is to be operated from both legal and managerial points of view bylaws
______ partners participate in operating the business while limited partners do not general
Franchising has grown very quickly, and many times there is little information on the many new franchises available. Prospective franchisees must concern themselves about _____ franchisors fraudulent
Though start-up costs are higher in international franchising, there is less_____ because thee are not as many other companies in the franchisor’s industries competition
a corporation is formally formed with articles of incorporation and bylaws
The owners of a corporate business are those individuals that own _____ stock
When the actions of other franchises have an impact on your future growth and profitability, this is an example of _____ effects coattail
Sole proprietors have pride of ownership in their business and they deserve all the credit for taking ______ risks
Partners can not only bring money into the business but also _____ which allows the business to borrow additional resources credit
Franchises are expanding internationally to access additional _____ that have new customers and to increase their profit potential markets
The higher costs of starting up an international franchise are usually counterbalanced by an expanding _____ base and less competition consumer
Having more _______ resources is an advantage of partnership so there is more money and credit available to the business financial
The fastest way for a foreign firm to enter the U.S. market may be to _____ to operations of a U.S. company buy
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Business Flashcards

Insurance Chapter 4 Questions

all of the following would be different between qualified and nonqualified retirement plans EXCEPT1. taxation on accumulation2. taxation of withdrawals3. taxations of contributions4. IRS approval requirements taxation on accumulation
an employee quits his job on May 15 and doesn’t convert his group life policy to an individual policy for 2 weeks. he dies an accident on June 1. which of the following statement best describes what will happen?1. the insurer will pay a reduce death benefit to the beneficiary2. the insurer will pay the death benefit minus one month’s premium3. the insurer will pay nothing because the employee has terminated his group insurance and hasn’t started individual one4. the insurer will pay the full death benefit from the group policy to the beneficiary the insurer will pay the full death benefit from the group policy to the beneficiary
which of the following is an example of liquidity in a life insurance contract?1. the death benefit paid to the beneficiary2. the flex premium3. the money in a savings account4. the cash value available to the policyowner the cash value available to the policyowner
in a life settlement contract, whom does the life settlement broker represent1. owner2. insurer3. beneficiary4. life settlement intermediary owner
in order to quality for conversion from a group life policy to an individual policy of the same coverage, a person must have been insured under the group plan for how many years?1. 12. 33. 54. 10 5
who is a third-party owner?1. an insurer who issues a policy for two people2. an employee in a group policy3. an irrevocable beneficiary4. a policyowner who is not the insured a policyowner who is not the insured
all of the following are business uses of life insurance EXCEPT1. funding against financial loss caused by the death of a key employee2. funding business continuation agreements3. funding against general company financial loss4. compensating executives funding against general company financial loss
which of the following is true regarding taxation of accelerated benefits under a life insurance policy?1. they are tax free to terminally ill insured2. they are always taxable to chronically ill insured3. they are always taxed4. there is a 10% penalty for early distribution of the death benefit they are tax free to terminally ill insured
which of the following is the best reason to purchase life insurance rather than annuities?1. to create regular income payments2. to liquidate a sum of money over a lifetime3. to create an estate4. to liquidate a sum of money over a period of years
if a life insurance policy develops cash value faster than a seven-pay whole life contract, it is1. endowment2. multiplicative policy3. modified endowment contract4. accelerated policy modified endowment contract
the minimum number of credits required for partially insured status for social security disability benefits is1. 4 credits2. 6 credits3. 10 credits4. 40 credits 6 credits
which of the following is NOT true regarding policy loans?1. an insurer can charge interest on outstanding policy loans2. a policy loan may be repaid after the policy is surrendered3. money borrowed from the cash value is taxable4. policy loans can be repaid at death money borrowed form the cash value is taxable
to attain currently insured status under social security, an worker must have earned at least how many credits during the last 13 quarters?1. 4 credits2. 6 credits3. 10 credits4. 40 credits 6 credits
which of the following is incorrect concerning a noncontributory group plan?1. the employee receive individual policies2. they help to reduce adverse selection against insurer3. they require 100% employee participation4. the employer pays 100% of the premiums the employees receive individual policies
a key person insurance policy can pay for which of the following?1. hospital bills of the key employee2. cost of training a replacement3. loss of personal income4. workers compensation cost of training a replacement
an employee quits her job where she has a balance of $10,000 in her qualified plan. if she decides to do a direct transfer from her plan to a traditional IRA, how much will be transferred from one plan adminstrator to another and what is the tax consequence of a direct transfer?1. $8000, no tax consequence2. $8000, tax on growth only3. $10,000, tax on growth only4. $10,000, no tax consequences $10,000, no tax consequences
a producer is helping a married couple determine the financial needs of their children in the event one or both should die prematurely. this is a personal use of life insurance know as1. survivor protection2. life planning3. survivorship insurance4. juvenile protection provision survivor protection
which of the following terms is used to name the nontaxed return of unused premiums?1. dividend2. premium return3. interest4. surrender dividend
SIMPLE plans require all of the following EXCEPT1. employees must receive a minimum of $5000 in annual compensation2. at least 1000 employees3. no other qualified plan can be used4. no more than 100 employees at least 1000 employees
which of the following is the required number of participants in a contributor group plan?1. 75%2. 100%3. 25%4. 50% 75%
social security was created to protect against all of the following EXCEPT1. sickness in old age2. premature death3. disability4. bad investment choices bad investment choices
an IRA purchased by a small employer to cover employees is known as a 1. 403(b) plan2. simplified employee pension plan3. 401(k) plan4. defined contribution plan simplified employee pension plan
if an insured surrenders his life insurance policy, which statement is true regarding the cash value of the policy?1. taxable only if it exceeds the amounts paid for premiums by 50%2. automatically taxable3. only taxable if the cash value exceeds the amount paid for premiums4. not considered to be taxable it is only taxable if the cash value exceeds the amount paid for premiums
which of the following terms means a result of calculation based on the average number of month the insured is projected to live due to medical history and mortality factors?1. morbidity2. life expectancy3. mortality rate4. risk exposure life expectancy
all of the following are TRUE of the federal tax advantages of a qualified plan EXCEPT1. funds accumulate on a tax-deferred basis2. employee and employer contributions are not counted as income to the employee for income tax purposes3. at distribution, all amounts by the employee are tax free4. employer contributions are tax deductible as ordinary business expense at distribution, all amounts received by the employee are tax free
a 60 year old participant in a 401(k) plan takes a distribution and rolls it over to an IRA within 60 days. which of the follow is true?1. the amount of the distribution is reduced by the amount of a 20% withholding tax2. no taxes are due since the plan participant is over age 59 1/23. there is a 10% early withdrawal penalty4. the amount distributed is subject to ordinary income tax
which of the following would describe a legal document which would dictate who can buy a deceased partner’s share of the business and for what amount?1. split dollar agreement2. buy-sell agreement3. profit and loss agreement4. key person agreement buy-sell agreement
what is the name of the insured who enters into a viatical settlement?1. viatical broker2. viator3. third party4. contingent viator
when an employer offers to give an employee a wage increase in the amount of the premium on a new life insurance policy, this is called a(n)1. key person policy2. fraternal association3. aleatory contract4. executive bonus executive bonus
in life insurance policies, cash values increases1. are income taxable immediately2. are taxed annually3. are only taxed when owner reaches age 654. grow tax deferred grow tax deferred
an internal revenue code provision that specifically provides for an individual retirement plan for public school teachers is a(n)1. 403(b) plan (TSA)2. keogh plan3. roth IRA4. sep 403(b) plan (TSA)
an individual has been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. he is insured udner a life insurance policy with the accelerated benefits rider. which of the following is true regarding taxation of the accelerated benefits?1. principal is tax free, but interest is taxed2. entire benefit will be received tax free3. the entire living benefit is considered taxable income4. portion of the benefit up to a limit is tax free; the rest is taxable income portion of the benefit up to a limit is tax free; the rest is taxable income
which of the following types of insurance policies would perform the function of cash accumulation?1. increasing term2. whole life3. term life4. credit life whole life
all of the following statements concerning employer sponsored nonqualified retirement plan are true EXCEPT1. plan is legal method of accumulating money for retirement needs.2. plan can discriminate as to who may participate3. plan is not approved to favorable tax treatment by IRS4. the employer can receive a current tax deduction for any contribution made into a plan the employer can receive a current tax deduction for any contribution made into a plan
if an insured worker has earned 40 quarters of coverage, the worker’s status under social security disability is1. permanently insured2. fully insured3. partially insured4. correctly insured full insured
an employee quits his job and converts his group policy to an individual policy; the premium for the individual policy will be based on his1. experience rating2. group rate3. insurer’s scheduled rate4. attained age attained age
what is the primary purpose of a 401(k) plan?1. life insurance2. retirement3. education funds4. to receive dividends over a certain period retirement
which of the following employees under a group life plan would be allowed to convert to individual insurance of the same coverage once the plan is terminated?1. those who have no history of claims2. those who have been insured under the plan for at least 5 years3. those who have worked in the company for at least 3 years4. those who have dependents those who have been insured under the plan for at least 5 years
what is the purpose of key person insurance?1. to insure retirement benefits are available to all key employees2. to maintain an account that insures the owner of a company remains solvent3. to lessen the risk of financial loss because o the death of a key employee4. to provide health insurance to the families of key employees to lessen the risk of financial loss because o the death of a key employee
an insured has a modified endowment contract. he wants to withdraw some money in order to pay medical bills. which of the following is true?1. he will not have to pay a penalty, regardless of age2. he cannot withdraw money from his MEC before age 59 1/23. he will have to pay a penalty if he is younger than 59 1/24. he will have to pay a penalty regardless of his age he will have to pay a penalty if he is younger than 59 1/2
which of the following statements concerning buy-sell agreements true?1. buy-sell agreements pay in the event of a medical emergency2. buy-sell agreements are normally funded with life insurance policy3. premiums paid are deductible as a business expense4. benefits received are consider income taxable buy-sell agreements are normally funded with life insurance policy
in a direct rollover, how is the money transferred from one plan to the new one?1. from the original plan to the original custodian2. from trustee to trustee3. from trustee to the participant4. from participant to the new plan from trustee to trustee
which of the following is NOT an example of a business use of life insurance?1. buy-sell funding2. executive bonuses3. key person4. worker’s compensation worker’s compensation
who is the owner and who is the beneficiary on a key person life insurance policy?1. the key employee is the owner and the employer is the beneficiary2. the employer is the owner and beneficiary 3. the employer is the owner and the key employee is the beneficiary4. the key employee is the owner and beneficiary the employer is the owner and beneficiary
all of the following are true of key person insurance EXCEPT1. the key employee is the insured2. the plan is funded by permanent insurance only3. there is no limitation on the number of key employee plans in force at nay one time4. the employer is the owner, payor and beneficiary of the policy the plan is funded by permanent insurance only
all of the following are requirements of eligibility for social security disability income benefits EXCEPT1. fully insured status2. waiting period of 5 months3. being age 654. inability to perform any gainful work being age 65
which of the following best defines the “owner” as it pertains to life settlement contracts?1. fiduciary for the contract2. insurance provider3. policyowner of the life insurance policy4. financial entity tat sponsors the transaction policyowner of the life insurance policy
all of the following statements are true regarding tax-qualified annuities EXCEPT1. tax accumulation is deferred2. they must be approved by the IRS3. withdraws are taxed4. employer contributions are no tax deductible employer contributions are not tax deductible
a corporation is the owner and beneficiary of the key person life policy. if the corporation collects the policy benefit, then1. the benefit is received tax free2. the benefit is subject to the exclusionary rule3. IRS has no jurisdiction4. the benefit is received as taxable income the benefit is received tax free
which of the following is NOT true of life settlements?1. seller must be terminally ill2. could be used for a key person coverage3. could be sold for an amount greater than the current cash value4. involve insurance policies with large face amounts seller must be terminally ill
for a retirement plan to be qualified, it must be designed for the benefit of1. key employee2. employer3. IRS4. employees employees
which of the following insurance arrangements will be appropriate for a parent buying a life insurance policy on a child where the parent is the policyowner?1. a buy-sell agreement2. family term rider3. third-party ownership4. an irrevocable beneficiary third-party ownership
all of the following would be eligible to establish a keogh retirement plan EXCEPT1. the president and employee of a family corporation2. a sole proprietor of a service station who employs four employees3. a sole proprietor of a film development store with no employees4. a hair dresser who operates her business at her house the president and employee of a family corporation
employer contributions made to qualified plan1. may discriminate in favor of highly paid employee2. are after-tax contributions3. are taxed annually as salary4. are subject to vesting requirements are subject to vesting requirements
if an immediate annuity is purchased with the face amount at death or with cash value at surrender, this would be considered a1. nonforfeiture option2. rollover3. settlement option4. nontaxable exchange settlement option
an insured under a life insurance policy has been diagnosed with a terminal illness and has 6 months to live. the insured knows that his financial state will worsen even more with the upcoming medical expenses. what option could the insured utilize?1. estate liquidation2. nonpayment of premium3. change of beneficiary4. viatical settlement viatical settlement
all of the following are characteristic of group life insurance EXCEPT1. amount of coverage is determined according to nondiscriminatory rules2. individuals covered under the policy receive a certificate of insurance3. certificate holders may convert coverage to an individual policy without evidence of insurability4. premiums are determined by the age, sex, and occupation of each individual certificate holder premiums are determined by the age, sex, and occupation of each individual certificate holder
what is the main purpose of the seven-pay test?1. it guarantees interest minimum2. it determines if the insurance policy is an MEC3. it requires level premium payments for 7 years4. it ensures that the policy benefits are paid out in 7 years it determines if the insurance policy is an MEC
what is the official name for the social security program?1. old age survivors disability insurance2. social insurance program3. defined benefit retirement insurance4. qualified pension plan old age survivors disability insurance
who can make a fully deductible contribution to a traditional IRA?1. a person whose contributions are funded by a return on investment2. an individual not covered by an employer-sponsored plan who has earned income3. anybody: all IRA contributions are fully deductible regardless of income level4. someone making contributions to an educational IRA an individual not covered by an employer-sponsored plan who has earned income
all of the following are general requirements of a qualified plan EXCEPT1. plan must be permanent, written and legally binding2. plan must provide an offset for social security benefits3. plan must be communicated to all employees4. plan must be for the exclusive benefits of the employees and their beneficiaries plan must provide an offset for social security benefits
which of the following is TRUE of a qualified plan?1. has a tax benefit for both employer and employee2. does not need to have a vesting schedule3. may discriminate in favor of highly paid employees4. may allow unlimited contributions has a tax benefit for both employer and employee
a 403(b) plan, commonly referred to as a TSA, is available to be used by1. postal employees2. self-employed persons3. teachers and not-for-profit organizations4. government workers teachers and not-for-profit organizations
if a life insurance policy develops cash value faster than a seven-pay whole life contract, it is 1. multiplicative policy2. modified endowment contract3. accelerated policy4. endowment modified endowment contract