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BUS 130 Test 2

Which of the following is typically included in the PLANNING STAGE of writing an effective business message? Question 1 options:A) setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) making the message easy to read C) making the message easy to navigate D) ensuring that the communication is fair E) identifying the primary message and key points E) identifying the PRIMARY message and key POINTS
Which of the following is typically included in the DRAFTING STAGE of writing an effective business message?Question 2 options:A) Setting a positive and other-oriented tone B) double-checking everything C) sending the message to be proofread D) identifying the primary message and key points E) ensuring the communication is fair A) SETTING a positive and other-oriented tone
Which of the following is something an EXCELLENT BUSINESS writer would do?Question 3 options: A) spend more time planning than drafting B) decide on a message-centered approach C) do the audience analysis during the drafting stage D) do a last-minute review of his or her work E) maintain an author-centered tone A) SPEND MORE TIME planning than drafting
ALAN is mentoring Pat, a younger colleague, in how to be a better business writer. As Pat was writing her last memo, she did the following things. Which one will Alan tell her she needs to change?Question 4 options: A) Pat addressed the needs of her audience in the memo. B) Pat spent a long time planning before she started to write. C) Pat applied the FAIR test to the memo when she reviewed it. D) Pat made sure the memo is easy to read and easy to navigate. E) Pat drew primarily on her own opinions and expertise. E) PAT DREW primarily on her own opinions and expertise.
Which of the following is one of the three-components of the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?Question 5 options: A) message review B) message structuring C) idea analysis D) inductive structure E) analysis of the medium B) MESSAGE structuring
Which of the following is the FIRST STEP in the AIM planning process for developing influential messages?Question 6 options:A) idea development B) message structuring C) audience analysis D) message review E) idea analysis C) Audience Analysis
How should writers CONSIDER the priorities of their targeted audience during the planning process for effective business messages?Question 7 options: A) Do not consider the priorities as they tend to fluctuate. B) Recognize that priorities shift less often than values. C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks. D) Refer to the enduring beliefs and ideals that individuals in the audience hold. E) Remember that priorities remain constant for each individual. C) Assign importance to things, such as projects, goals, and tasks.
In the COURSE of creating an effective business message, excellent business thinkers are most likely toQuestion 8 options: A) gather information from one strong source rather than from a variety of sources. B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions. C) begin jotting down a rough draft right away to capture their ideas. D) encourage one-way linear thinking and a rigid approach to business problems. E) avoid using the other-oriented tone in their text. B) make well-reasoned conclusions and solutions.
FACTS are statements thatQuestion 9 options: A) are subjective and differ from situation to situation. B) are based on assumptions. C) can be relied on with a fair amount of certainty. D) are fictitious in nature. E) are inherently ambiguous in nature. C) can be RELIED on with a fair amount of certainty.
Analyzing a business PROBLEM typically involvesQuestion 10 options: A) ignoring audience constraints. B) deducing conclusions from facts. C) imposing your priorities on the situation. D) exaggerating the problem. E) being flexible and not taking positions. B) DEDUCING conclusions from facts.
At glaciers inc.., the management wanted to introduce a new medical insurance program for its employees. They appointed Laura to analyze the pros and cons of the idea. Laura conducted thorough research and prepared a report based on her findings. Before doing any writing, she stated her view in a SHORT, MEMORABLE STATEMENT of less than 15 words, known as a(n)Question 11 options: A) call to action. B) primary message. C) thesis statement. D) overarching theme. E) supporting sentence. B) primary message
For the past couple of months, many employees working at Exterior Inc. have been quitting their jobs. Jason from the human resources department is given the responsibility of analyzing the reasons behind this problem. After conducting a thorough research, Jason finds that the employees were not happy with their salary and hence had no motivation to work. How will Jason structure his MESSAGE if he wants to use the deductive, or direct, APPROACH?Question 12 options: A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to Action
Most business ARGUMENTS employ a deductive approach. When employing this approach you are most likely toQuestion 13 options: A) avoid stating your position regarding any business issue. B) provide supporting reasons first followed by the primary message. C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a recommendation. D) begin by making a call to action for your audience to follow. E) begin by stating the supporting reasons followed by your call to action. C) begin by stating the primary message, which is typically a RECOMMENDATION.
The DIFFERENCE between the DEDUCTIVE approach and the INDUCTIVE approach is thatQuestion 14 options: A) in the inductive approach, the order of supporting ideas is unimportant. B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message. C) in the deductive approach, the supporting reasons follow the call to action. D) in the deductive approach, positions are based on assumptions, not facts. E) in the deductive approach, the business argument concludes with the primary message. B) in the inductive approach, the supporting reasons are placed before the primary message.
What do the deductive approach and inductive approach to STRUCTURING business messages have in COMMON?Question 15 options: A) In both, the call to action comes in the middle. B) In both, the supporting ideas come last. C) In both, the arrangement of supporting ideas is important. D) In both, the primary message comes first. E) In both, the call to action must be 15 words or less. C) In both, the arrangement of SUPPORTING ideas is important.
OMAR is the marketing manager at PLM. In his market survey, he finds that customers are not happy with PLM’s inefficient customer service. How will Omar STRUCTURE his message if he wants to use the inductive, or indirect, approach?Question 16 options: A) start with a call to action; lay out the supporting reasons; conclude with the primary message B) state the primary message; lay out supporting reasons; conclude with a call to action C) lay out the supporting reasons in careful order; state the primary message D) state the primary message; give the call to action; lay out the supporting reasons E) start with a call to action; state the primary message; lay out the supporting reasons C) lay out the SUPPORTING reasons in careful order; state the primary message
Lorraine, the HR manager at BGH Garden Pot Manufacturing, analyzes the problem of increasing employee turnover and concludes that upgrading the employee benefit programs would help control the situation. While preparing her report, Lorraine states that upgrading the company’s employee benefit program would reduce employee turnover because a nearby large investment firm used the same strategy to solve a similar problem. However Lorraine’s message failed to convince the decision makers at BGH. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason behind this failure?Question 17 options: A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument D) weak analogy
JORGE, the shipping manager at Durable Products, writes a MEMO proposing that that they stop using RoadHog Trucking Company and ship everything by L.B. Haines. The reason he gives is that two of the accounts that have been shipping by L.B. Haines during the last year increased their orders by more than 10%, so he is certain that switching trucking firms will cause other accounts to grow too. The executives of the company do not accept Jorge’s suggestion. Why was his memo unconvincing?Question 18 options: A) slanting of facts B) exaggeration C) either/or logic D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument E) faulty cause/effect argument
SALINA, the expeditor at RingPro Gasket Manufacturer, writes a memo asking her manager to buy her a new computerized system for tracking customer orders. She claims that if she does not get this system, chronically late deliveries will ensue. Her manager turns down her request. Salina made the MISTAKE of usingQuestion 19 options: A) either/or logic. B) an indirect structure. C) an unsupported generalization. D) a weak analogy. E) you-voice. A) either/or logic.
Chris, an editorial manager at Better Textbooks, Inc., wants to ELIMINATE his copy EDITING department and outsource the work to a company in India. In his proposal, he states, “Doing so will revolutionize our workflow and save us untold thousands of dollars.” The EDITORIAL director calls Chris into his office and informs him that his memo is not credible. What mistake did Chris make?Question 20 options: A) either/or logic B) exaggeration C) unsupported generalization D) weak analogy E) faulty cause/effect argument B) EXAGGERATION
DERIK has been given the responsibility of analyzing how counseling programs can reduce problem behavior among employees in his company. After much research, he discovers that counseling has several benefits. Employees exhibiting problem behavior often respond positively to counseling. They are likely to be more motivated and meet performance standards after the counseling sessions. Considering this information, identify the statement that clearly EXAGGERATES what Derik has found.Question 21 options: A) Employees exhibiting problem behavior are most likely to respond positively to counseling. B) Counseling always dramatically improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior. C) Counseling can contribute toward increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior. D) The issue of problem behavior among employees can be improved through counseling. E) Counseling is one of the ways of increasing the motivation levels of employees exhibiting problem behavior. B) Counseling ALWAYS DRAMATICALLY improves the performance of employees exhibiting problem behavior.
______ is the overall evaluation that A reader perceives the writer to have toward the reader and the message content.Question 22 options: A) Tone B) Framework C) Structure D) Layout E) Outline A) Tone
In all business messages, communicators should ideally AIM AT Question 23 options: A) effectively using either/or arguments. B) slanting facts to their benefit. C) projecting positivity. D) appropriately exaggerating facts. E) avoiding the other-oriented approach. C) projecting POSITIVITY.
In order to make business messages more positive, business writers should focus on actions they can accomplish and demonstrate a REALISTIC optimism. However they should be carefulQuestion 24 options: A) not to set unrealistic expectations. B) to avoid diplomatic terms. C) not to use too-strong analogies. D) to avoid generalizations. E) not to send meta messages. A) not to set unREALISTIC expectations.
Carlton finds that a geographic restructuring would have a positive effect on his insurance company and increase its efficiency. He draws up a report for the board of directors in which he mentions that separate departments should be set up for each of the company’s 10 sales territories. Which of the following statements is most likely to increase the positivity of HIS PROPOSITION?Question 25 options: A) Let me know if you want to work on changing the structure of the company. B) Using a geographic structure will not guarantee that the company’s productivity increases. C) Geographic restructuring is not likely to reduce the company’s overall costs. D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically. E) A geographic structure might possibly have a positive effect on the company. D) I look forward to putting together a detailed plan to restructure the company geographically.
In CONTENT and form, a business message should typicallyQuestion 26 options: A) avoid any form of self-centeredness. B) exaggerate facts. C) avoid using diplomatic terms. D) avoid using strong analogies. E) slant facts skillfully. A) avoid any form of self-CENTEREDness.
Extensive use of the I-VOICE in a business messageQuestion 27 options: A) fails to indicate that the writer cares about the interest of the audience. B) increases the positivity of the message. C) reveals that the writer has slanted the facts. D) emphasizes that the writer understands the concerns of the reader. E) indicates that the writer uses faulty either/or logic. A) fails to indicate that the writer CARES about the interest of the audience.
The use of WE-VOICE in a business messageQuestion 28 options: A) fails to reflect the interests of the audience. B) indicates that the writer has not reached any conclusions. C) decreases the credibility of the message. D) emphasizes the writer’s shared interests with the reader. E) indicates that the writer is slanting the message. D) EMPHASIZES the writer’s SHARED interests with the reader.
Which of the following is most likely to show that the writer of a business message has CONCERN for the audience?Question 29 options: A) relying heavily on the I-voice B) presenting exaggerated facts to the audience C) respecting the autonomy of the reader D) presenting slanted facts to the audience E) giving credit to any sources used C) RESPECTING the autonomy of the reader
Sending MIXED SIGNALS is most likely toQuestion 30 options: A) result in positive meta messages. B) increase the flexibility of encoding and decoding. C) cause the reader to feel confused. D) resolve the conflict between the content and tone of a message. E) increase the credibility of a message. C) cause the reader to feel CONFUSED.
In order to ENSURE the COMPLETENESS of a business message, one shouldQuestion 31 options: A) be specific. B) avoid empty phrases. C) avoid redundancies. D) control paragraph length. E) use action verbs. A) be SPECIFIC.
In the context of creating a complete BUSINESS MESSAGE, which of the following is true?Question 32 options: A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a business document down. B) Using action verbs focuses on the goal of coordinating action in the workplace and livens up your writing. C) Using longer, more unusual words to “sound smart” can increase the credibility of your message. D) Using the passive voice allows for faster processing by the readers, because most people naturally think in that structure. E) Relying on parallel language can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver. A) Providing too much information can distract the readers and weigh a BUSINESS DOCUMENT down.
Which of the following GUIDELINES should be FOLLOWED to ensure that you are creating a complete business message?Question 33 options: A) Use longer, more unusual words to “sound smart” and increase the credibility of your message. B) Avoid parallel language as it can distract the readers from the main message you want to deliver. C) Include all the information you need by eliminating as much white space as possible. D) Plan, write, and review your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant. E) Use the active voice to avoid blaming others or sounding too bossy. D) PLAN, WRITE AND REVIEW your message strategically to provide all relevant information, but nothing irrelevant.
Which of the following is most likely to NEGATIVELY INFLUENCE readers’ perceptions of your CREDIBILITY?Question 34 options: A) long paragraphs B) inaccurate statements C) generous white space D) passive voice E) parallel language B) INACCURATE statements
Which of the following is most likely to POSITIVELY INFLUENCE your readers’ perceptions of your credibility?Question 35 options: A) being wordy B) being specific C) using buzzwords D) starting sentences with “There are” E) using prepositional phrases B) being specific
Neta believes it is a good idea to write business messages using generalities that will appeal to a broad readership. How is this practice likely to AFFECT Neta’s readers?Question 36 options: A) They may doubt her competence. B) They will read the message carefully. C) They will find the information they need. D) They will be assured that she is not hiding facts. E) They will focus on the primary message. A) They may doubt her competence.
Akram recently learned that his manager believes he was trying to hide the truth about his department’s EXPENSES in his last report. How can Akram revise his report to avoid giving that impression?Question 37 options: A) Shorten his paragraphs. B) Avoid using buzzwords. C) Use specific numbers and facts. D) Avoid using unfamiliar words. E) Decrease his use of white space. C) Use specific NUMBERS and facts.
The management at Lavender GARMET MANUFACTURING company conducted a survey with the intention of standardizing their employees’ productivity to increase company profits. Based on their findings, they set their standards and circulated the following instructions, “Every employee should manufacture as many shirts AS POSSIBLE.” However, this failed to clearly deliver the intended message of standardization. Which of the following would correct the problem?Question 38 options: A) Every employee should maximize the workflow of his or her station. B) As many shirts as possible should be made by each employee. C) All workers and employees should manufacture as many shirts or garments as possible. D) Every employee should manufacture a minimum of three shirts an hour. E) Needless to say, every employee should manufacture as many shirts as possible every day. D) Every employee should manufacture A MINIMUM of three shirts an hour.
In the context of business messages, CONCISENESS impliesQuestion 39 options: A) removing relevant information. B) omitting needless words. C) omitting parallel structure. D) removing white space. E) removing paragraph breaks. B) omitting NEEDLESS words.
One way to solve the problem of overly LENGTHY paragraphs is toQuestion 40 options: A) include more figures of speech. B) focus on one idea or topic in each paragraph. C) use passive voice instead of active. D) start more sentences with “There is.” E) replace verbs with prepositional phrases. B) FOCUS on one idea or topic in each paragraph.
Julio has a long paragraph that describes the TWO MAIN CAUSES of employee absenteeism and gives a suggestion to address each cause. Ideally, how many paragraphs does Julio need to cover this material?Question 41 options: A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five D) four (INTRO, CAUSE 1, CAUSE 2, CON.)
As a rule of thumb, for ROUTINE MESSAGES, the sentence length should be no more thanQuestion 42 options: A) 8 words. B) 15 words. C) 20 words. D) 25 words. E) 30 words. B) 15 words
Consider the following statement: “Employee managers can use our MOTIVATIONAL tools to MOTIVATE their employees to increase productivity.” The best way to make this statement concise is byQuestion 43 options: A) changing the passive voice. B) removing empty phrases. C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb. D) starting with “It is” or “There are.” E) removing any redundant words. E) removing any REDUNDANT words.
Consider the statement: “As most of you know, Mega Manufacturing had its most profitable year ever last year.” One way to make this statement more concise is byQuestion 44 options: A) changing the passive voice. B) removing empty phrases. C) replacing a prepositional phrase with a verb. D) starting with “It is” or “There are.” E) removing any redundant words. B) removing empty phrases.
It becomes easier for YOUR readers to process the information YOU present when youQuestion 45 options: A) match your writing style to the way your readers think and talk. B) use prepositional phrases extensively as they increase the clarity of the message. C) choose long and obscure words to pique their curiosity. D) avoid using parallel language, which makes it difficult to distinguish between the information provided. E) include a lot of text in your message and very little white space. A) MATCH YOUR writing style to the way YOUR readers think and talk.
Which statement about active voice and passive voice is true?Question 46 options: A) The active voice diverts attention from the doer. B) People tend to think in a doer-action-object pattern. C) The active voice is best when you do not want to attribute blame. D) People tend to sound bossy when using the passive voice. E) The passive voice places the object first. B) People tend to think in a DOER-action-object pattern.
People are most likely to process information QUICKLY when writers useQuestion 47 options: A) prepositional phrases. B) action verbs. C) the passive voice. D) complex words. E) long sentences. B) ACTION verbs.
To create a more NATURAL writing style and improve the ease of reading, a writer should useQuestion 48 options: A) passive verbs. B) parallel language. C) the passive voice. D) figures of speech. E) buzzwords. B) parallel language.
Consider the following sentence: “CEO Mike Maloney regrets to announce that PharmCo will be downsizing at the end of September.” Which of the following actions would improve the ease of reading?Question 49 options: A) Cut the prepositional phrase “at the end of September.” B) Change “at the end of September” to “at the end of the third quarter.” C) Change “PharmCo” to “PharmCo Drug and Pharmaceutical Company.” D) Change the buzzword “downsizing” to “laying off employees.” E) Change “CEO Mike Maloney” to “The CEO of PharmCo.” D) Change the buzzword “downsizing” to “laying off employees.”
Using the ACTIVE voice while writing business messagesQuestion 50 options: A) diverts the attention from the subject. B) makes the writer sound less bossy. C) allows for faster processing of the business message. D) makes the message difficult to navigate. E) is useful when the writer wants to avoid assigning blame. C) allows for FASTER processing of the business message.
The use of FAMILIAR words in business messages is most likely toQuestion 51 options: A) distract attention from the message. B) decrease the credibility of the message. C) cause the readers’ attention to wander because of boredom. D) decrease the specificity of the message. E) help the readers to process the information easily. E) HELP the readers to process the information EASILY.
Which statement about BUZZWORDS is true?Question 52 options: A) They make text more active. B) They are trite due to overuse. C) They have very technical meanings. D) They shorten the length of the message. E) They improve a message’s accuracy. B) They are trite due to OVERUSE.
Which of the following statements accurately describes the use of figures of speech, such as idioms and metaphors, in business writing?Question 53 options: A) They should be avoided because they lack specificity. B) They send the signal that the writer is out of touch with the audience. C) They are an effective way to write more concisely. D) They should be avoided because they are too I-centered. E) They are an effective way to make a message more natural. A) They should be AVOIDED because they LACK SPECIFICITY.
Which of the following is most likely to improve the ease of navigation in INFORMATION-RICH and COMPLEX messages?Question 54 options: A) using headings to convey the contents of sections B) avoiding the use of numbered or bulleted lists C) using several different font styles in the document D) using a new style of formatting for each section E) avoiding the use of too much white space A) using headings to convey the CONTENTS of sections
For most written business communications, the FIRST CONSIDERATION should be toQuestion 55 options: A) present the message in a visually appealing manner. B) get the message across in an easy-to-read manner. C) select the facts in a persuasive manner. D) construct the message in passive voice. E) demonstrate how much of an expert you are. B) GET THE MESSAGE ACROSS in an easy-to-read manner.
Which of the following choices is a COMPONENT of the REVIEWING PROCESS?Question 56 options: A) audience analysis B) identifying the primary message C) determining the key points D) determining the message structure E) conducting the FAIR test E) CONDUTING the FAIR test
In the context of the reviewing process, the “R” in the FAIR test stands for _____.Question 57 options: A) revision B) respect C) relevancy D) redundancy E) repetition B) respect
Which task are you most likely to do during the FINAL pass of PROOFREADING?Question 58 options: A) Check for grammatical errors. B) Look for typographical mistakes. C) Imagine how the audience will respond. D) Ask yourself if you are confident in your facts. E) See if you have made logical errors. B) LOOK for typographical mistakes.
Kwame has written a memo expressing his concern that the company has opened itself up to a DISCRIMINATION SUIT because it sponsors a men’s softball team but not a women’s sports team. Which of the following people should Kwame ask to give feedback about the wording of his memo before he sends it to the executive committee?Question 59 options: A) a colleague in the Finance Department B) a colleague in the Legal Department C) a colleague in the Purchasing Department D) a colleague in the Shipping Department E) a colleague in the Public Relations Department B) a colleague in the LEGAL Department
Ashley has written a report proposing that her company subsidize employees who take PUBLIC transportation. One of her main supporting points is that the program would help the company’s reputation because it is a green initiative. Which of the following people should Ashley ask for feedback about that part of the proposal?Question 60 options: A) an executive in the Finance Department B) an executive in the Legal Department C) an executive in the Human Resources Department D) an executive in the Research and Development Department E) an executive in the Public Relations Department E) an executive in the PUBLIC Relations Department
When CHOOSING a communication channel, ______ refers to the degree to which communications can be planned and recorded, thus allowing strategic message development.Question 61 options: A) richness B) immediacy C) constraint D) coordination E) control E) control
Angel PREFERS written communication because she can BRAINSTORM, DRAFT, EDIT, revise, and otherwise develop her message before delivering it. Which aspect of communication does she value?Question 62 options: A) permanence B) immediacy C) planning D) richness E) coordination C) planning
Bao is conducting a study that compares the cost of KEEPING print messages on file versus storing digital messages in the cloud. What aspect of communications relates to the storage of messages?Question 63 options: A) coordination B) planning C) constraint D) permanence E) richness D) permanence
Rick is trying to schedule a video teleconference with colleagues at several locations. To do so, he needs to coordinate their SCHEDULES and also CHECK TO SEE if the company needs to invest in any additional resources to make it happen. By addressing coordination and resource issues, he is dealing withQuestion 64 options: A) constraint. B) control. C) immediacy. D) permanence. E) richness. A) constraint
Which of the following deals with how QUICKLY someone is able to give feedback during communication?Question 65 options: A) coordination B) immediacy C) cue D) permanence E) richness B) immediacy
Maya’s virtual team includes editors in the United States, designers in Italy, and fact checkers in India. Maya wants the team to discuss the development process for their next book. Which communication channel will best allow team members to consider what they say, to respond in a way that is comfortable, and to fit the DISCUSSION IN THEIR SCHEDULES?Question 66 options: A) a conference call B) a videoconference C) an electronic discussion thread D) a series of print memos E) a series of one-to-one phone calls C) an electronic discussion thread
Which of the following facilitates a one-stop work space containing project and meeting information, SHARED FILES, and COMMUNICATION platforms?Question 67 options: A) texting B) written messages C) webinar D) social networking E) email D) social networking
Ismail needs to let Felicia know that the FUNDS FOR HER PET PROJECT have been SLASHED. Which communication channel should Ismail use?Question 68 options: A) email B) written message C) social networking D) texting E) spoken communication E) spoken communication
Craig is the sales manager at Blaize Supersports and has a 20-member sales team. During an average day, Craig receives about 115 emails and sends out 75 emails. James, a salesperson at the store, is typing an email to Craig. James wants to take a week off to spend time with his family. Which of the following is true concerning the SUB JECT LINE of James’s email?Question 69 options: A) The email does not need a subject line because it comes from one of Craig’s staff. B) It should include only the number of days and dates of his vacation. C) It should include James’s name, department details, and employee identification number. D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as “James requests time off.” E) It should include an attention-getting phrase such as “Urgent Staff Issue.” D) It should use a descriptive subject line such as “James requests time off.
Judging only by LENGTH, which of the following is the best subject line for an email?Question 70 options: A) Why? B) Last month C) The reason why we should consider implementing this marketing plan is its many benefits. D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00 E) So, here it goes D) Team meeting, Harper conference room, at 11:00
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be placed in the SUBJECT LINE of an email?Question 71 options: A) an expected action B) a signature block C) a list of attachments D) a professional tagline E) the recipient’s name A) an expected action
Which of the following is most likely to be included in the SIGNATURE BLOCK of an email?Question 72 options: A) a list of attachments B) an expected action C) statistical data D) contact details E) the names of all the recipients D) contact details
Which of the following GUIDELINES best ensures that your email is easy to read?Question 73 options: A) Include a subject line that is at least 20 words long. B) Make each paragraph in your message at least 80 words long. C) Avoid the inclusion of attachments. D) Avoid stating expected actions explicitly. E) Provide a descriptive signature block. E) Provide a descriptive signature block.
When Sherry sends task-oriented emails to colleagues, she always tells them the deadline for the tasks and details about when she is available to talk or meet. What conclusion are Sherry’s colleagues likely to draw from this?Question 74 options: A) Sherry holds an important place in the organization. B) Sherry is arrogant and bossy. C) Sherry respects their time and other commitments. D) Sherry packs unnecessary information in her messages. E) Sherry has leadership potential. C) Sherry RESPECTS their time and other commitments.
What should you do when you CANNOT RESPOND to a request made in an email?Question 75 options: A) Log off the system so the sender will assume that you are offline. B) Set up an automated response to say that you are out of town. C) Inform the sender that you are busy and cannot reply straightaway. D) Reply immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full. E) Ignore the email for now and reply when you can. D) REPLY immediately to explain how soon you can respond in full.
Paul always hits “reply to all” whenever he answers a team email, even if the email was a question posed by one other person and directed only to Paul. When he initiates an email about his project, he sends it to everyone in his DEPARTMENT. Judging only from this information, what impact does Paul have on his department’s communications?Question 76 options: A) He is spreading confidential information to unauthorized people. B) He is making everyone in his department feel included as part of the team. C) He is helping make the department work more efficiently. D) He is ensuring that each person on the team clearly knows his or her assignment. E) He is contributing to email overload in his department. E) He is contributing to EMAIL OVERLOAD in his DEPARTMENT.
Which of the following is a reason why greetings and names are OMITTED from emails?Question 77 options: A) People do not like being greeted or having their names used very often. B) Omitting names and greetings saves space and keeps many emails on one screen. C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of memos, which traditionally omit names and greetings. D) Most people are emotionally uninvolved at work and are not inclined toward greeting others. E) Since emails are typically forwarded to several other people, it is inappropriate to name only one recipient. C) Some professionals view emails as the equivalent of MEMOS, which traditionally OMIT names and greetings.
Which of the following is an example of the neutrality effect?Question 78 options: A) George writes an email in which he intends to express a negative emotion, but readers decode it as neutral. B) Sue writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral. C) Ali writes an email in which he intends to express a neutral emotion, and readers decode it as neutral. D) Rand writes an email that he intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as negative. E) Cora writes an email that she intends to be neutral, but readers decode it as positive. B) SUE writes an email in which she intends to express a positive emotion, but readers decode it as neutral.
Clement, a customer service representative at Sarah’s Supermart, has a tough time handling customers during his first week on the job. Carlo, Clement’s colleague, guides him through this difficult period. Afterward, Clement writes Carlo an email to thank him warmly for his help. Carlo NEITHER REACTS NOR REPLIES. Carlo’s behavior is an example ofQuestion 79 options: A) negativity effect. B) neutrality effect. C) active incivility. D) defusing. E) constraint. B) neutrality effect.
Dave sends an email to his colleague, Stan, asking for important details about an ongoing project. Stan is on a business trip and finds no time to reply to all of Dave’s queries. Dave wrongly perceives that Stan is ignoring him. Which of the following should Dave do?Question 80 options: A) Because Stan is indulging in cyber silence, Dave should retort with flames. B) Dave should inform their manager about his complaints against Stan. C) Because Stan is on a business trip, Dave should not bother him even if the project falls behind. D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply. E) Dave should ignore Stan’s emails when Stan finally replies. D) Dave should call Stan or send a polite message saying he would appreciate an early reply.
One possible negative effect of texting is thatQuestion 81 options: A) the brevity of texts can make them sound bossy. B) texts are an inherently serious channel. C) texts do not convey meta messages. D) the format of texts is not good for positive news. E) texts cannot be sent to a group. A) the brevity of texts can make them sound BOSSY.
Hannah is in the middle of writing a report, and she does not want to disrupt the flow of her work by walking over to the department bookcase to double check the name of their main competitor’s product. She decides to text Joe, who sits next to the bookcase, to ask him to do it. Because of repeated incidents like this, Hannah is likely to be seen asQuestion 82 options: A) efficient. B) a team player. C) a contributor. D) busy. E) a taker. E) a taker.
Frequent incoming messages canQuestion 83 options: A) increase productivity. B) increase attention spans. C) reduce creativity. D) reduce stress. E) improve civility. C) reduce creativity.
Which of the following can help keep email-induced distractions at bay?Question 84 options: A) checking your messages once an hour B) checking your messages at the end of the day C) checking your messages once a week and using an automated message to indicate that D) checking your messages just two to four times a day E) checking your messages constantly to keep updated on the latest information D) checking your messages just two to four times a day
Why are COMPANIES like Google and Microsoft joining the Overload RESEARCH Group?Question 85 options: A) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of individuals. B) It is a service that responds to texts and emails on behalf of companies. C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many e-interruptions. D) It is a service that searches a company’s emails to reduce overload by destroying duplicates. E) It is an organization trying to train workers to have better attention spans. C) It is an organization devoted to finding solutions to the problem of too many E-INTERRUPTIONS.
How is productivity affected when employees multitask?Question 86 options: A) Productivity increases by up to 80 percent. B) Productivity increases by up to 40 percent. C) Productivity remains the same. D) Productivity drops by up to 40 percent. E) Productivity drops by up to 85 percent. D) Productivity DROPS by up to 40 percent.
Which of the following would help to REDUCE e-interruptions?Question 87 options: A) checking digital messages six to eight times a day at random B) turning on an automatic message that you are not answering emails all day C) replying immediately to all messages to get them out of the way D) using rich channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely E) adding colleagues to an email chain so they can answer the messages D) using RICH channels of communication to accomplish tasks completely
When preparing for a business phone call, you should do many of the same things you do forQuestion 88 options: A) an email. B) a meeting. C) texting. D) a webinar. E) social media. B) a meeting.
Which of the following is a helpful guideline for phone conversations with business colleagues?Question 89 options: A) Begin discussing business issues immediately after saying hello. B) To keep a formal tone, avoid using the other person’s name. C) Multitask as long as you can do so without the other person suspecting. D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties. E) To avoid wasting your colleagues’ time, end without social niceties. D) Make sure that the conversation time is balanced between both parties.
Which of the following is a helpful tip for using webcams during a group video call?Question 90 options: A) Make sure your background shows several objects relevant to the conversation. B) Wear casual clothing that day to appear friendlier. C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible. D) Be careful to tone down your facial expressions and gestures. E) Sit slightly to one side so you can display visual aids if needed. C) Maintain direct eye contact with the camera as much as possible.
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Business final

An Advertisement in which the benefits of using Advil instead of Tylenol are discussed is _____ advertising Comparative
Which advertising medium is the Most selective? Direct mail
The newest advertising medium is The internet
The positioning of a product is the development of a product image is consumers mind, relative to competing products.
All of the following are categories of promotion except. Managerial relations
Which of the following is true about marketing messages and social media? Social media marketing messages are not like traditional marketing messages.
For most companies, all except ________ are some of the popular objectives in regard to a social media Increasing profitability
Ashley wants to increase the profits of her e-business. What two ways can she accomplish her goals of increasing profits? Cutting back on expenses and increasing sales
Money that an electronics retailer receives through the online sales of extended warranty plans provides an _______ for the company? Revenue stream
using data about buying preferences and customer profiles allows managements to do which of the following. all the above.
Resources that a firm own are called assets
Debts owned by a business are called liabilities
If total liabilities were subtracted from total assets the residual value would be owners equity
A summary of the assets, liabilities and owners equity is(it’s also called the statement of financial position) balance sheet
An_______ is a summary of firm’s revenues and expenses during a specified accounting period, such as a year. income statement.
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Business Principles – Chapter 5

The failure rate for franchises is lower than other business ventures because of: 1) financial advice and assistance 2) nationally recognized names
In franchise, having management support from the franchisor is a(n) _____ whereas the coattail is effect is considered a ______ advantage, disadvantage
In evaluating the market for a franchise a study must made to determine if your product has a ______ in your territory at the _____ you want to charge market, price
Corporations can rase large amount of money, take advantage of economies o scale and hire experts in all areas of operation. This can be summarized as _____ advantage size
Select all the advantages of the partnership form of business 1) pooled skills2) more financial resources3) longer survival
_____ do not pay taxes when submitting the organization’s tax return to the Internal Revenue Service. partners
Corporations shield their stockholders from unlimited liability and allow them to share in the: profits generated by the firm
Perpetual life for a corporation means that the death of one owner does not _____ the corporation. terminate
This is considered an advantage of corporations ease of transfer of ownership
The paperwork needed to start a corporation is extensive but a corporation must also keep detailed _____ records documenting all financial transactions in detail financial
Double taxation of a corporation occurs because the company pays tax on_____ and then individual shareholders pay income tax on the dividends they receive income
Unlike an LLC, conventional and S corporations’ stockholders can ____ their shares as they wish sell
The ______ of a member can cause LLCs to dissolve automatically death
Franchise are important to the _____ because of the number of new businesses started and jobs created. economy
An entrepreneur would join a _______ if they are uncomfortable starting their business from scratch. franchise
Select the reasons why size is an advantage of the corporation 1) acquire the latest equipment 2) build modern facilities3) diversify through acquisition 4) attract expert for hire
a ____ _____ means that a corporation’s existence will not terminate if one or more owners die perpetual life
Except for states like Delaware and Nevada, _____ creates a disadvantage to incorporating extensive paperwork
When the corporation pays a tax on its profits and individual stockholders each pay tax on dividends distributed by the corporation it is called: double taxation
Although members may choose to reconstitute an LLC after it dissolves, limited ___ ____ is considered a disadvantage of this form of business life span
Which statements are accurate as related to corporate taxation? stockholders pay income tax on the dividends they receive double taxation occurs
Funds available for a sole proprietorship are limited to: what the owner can provide
Some co-ops ask _____ to work for a number of hours a month as a part of their membership duties members
Flexible distribution of profits and losses is considered an advantage of an LLC because: profits/losses do not have to be distributed in proportion to the money each person invests
Select the reasons a business might change ownership form 1) adding a partner to the firm2) seeking limited liability3) dropping a partner from the firm
All of the following are advantages of partnerships except: partnerships have unlimited liabilities for the debts incurred by the business.
___________ of company profits is considered an advantage of a sole proprietorship retention
In a sole proprietorship, any debts or damages incurred by the business are your personal debts and you must pay them. The disadvantage is known as: unlimited liability
A LLC has the choice of taxation and can be taxed as a(n) ____ or as a corporation partnership
Select ways an LLP deals with liability for partners 1) partners are not held liable for each other’s actions 2) when a partner is sued individually for malpractice, it doe snot affect other partners. 3) liability is limited to losing only personal assets directly related to personal acts.
An advantage of cooperatives is that they: increase the economic power of members.
If the owner of a sole proprietorship wants to incorporate, the following disadvantages must be considered: 1) cost of incorporation 2) double taxation
Some people dislike the notion of owners, managers, workers, and buyers being separate individuals with separate goals. To meet their needs, they have formed: cooperatives
Burger King and Gymboree were publicly traded companies until a group of stock holders regained all the firms’ stock in order to regain control. This is referred to as _____ a firm______ taking, private
Limited liability is considered an advantage of forming an LLC because: personal assets are protected.
What are the advantages of the LLC form of organization? 1) flexible ownership rules2) limited liability 3) choice of taxation
A corporation is formally formed with: articles of incorporation and bylaws
A limited liability partnership limits the liability of limited partners to their: initial investment
Being owned by those using the products of a firm rather than simply being a shareholder is what makes a ______ unique cooperative
When analyzing which type of merger a firm uses to grow we can classify them by whether they are: 1) in the same industry2) different industries3) different levels of an industry
Among the questions to ask before franchising internationally is: 1) can you support global partners?2) will you intellectual property be protected?3) are you able to adapt to franchise regulations in other countries?
The limited liability partnership ensure that the limited partner’s _____ assets are not at risk. personal
In addition to the articles of incorporation, a corporation has _____ which describes how the firms is to be operated from both legal and managerial points of view bylaws
______ partners participate in operating the business while limited partners do not general
Franchising has grown very quickly, and many times there is little information on the many new franchises available. Prospective franchisees must concern themselves about _____ franchisors fraudulent
Though start-up costs are higher in international franchising, there is less_____ because thee are not as many other companies in the franchisor’s industries competition
a corporation is formally formed with articles of incorporation and bylaws
The owners of a corporate business are those individuals that own _____ stock
When the actions of other franchises have an impact on your future growth and profitability, this is an example of _____ effects coattail
Sole proprietors have pride of ownership in their business and they deserve all the credit for taking ______ risks
Partners can not only bring money into the business but also _____ which allows the business to borrow additional resources credit
Franchises are expanding internationally to access additional _____ that have new customers and to increase their profit potential markets
The higher costs of starting up an international franchise are usually counterbalanced by an expanding _____ base and less competition consumer
Having more _______ resources is an advantage of partnership so there is more money and credit available to the business financial
The fastest way for a foreign firm to enter the U.S. market may be to _____ to operations of a U.S. company buy
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Insurance Chapter 4 Questions

all of the following would be different between qualified and nonqualified retirement plans EXCEPT1. taxation on accumulation2. taxation of withdrawals3. taxations of contributions4. IRS approval requirements taxation on accumulation
an employee quits his job on May 15 and doesn’t convert his group life policy to an individual policy for 2 weeks. he dies an accident on June 1. which of the following statement best describes what will happen?1. the insurer will pay a reduce death benefit to the beneficiary2. the insurer will pay the death benefit minus one month’s premium3. the insurer will pay nothing because the employee has terminated his group insurance and hasn’t started individual one4. the insurer will pay the full death benefit from the group policy to the beneficiary the insurer will pay the full death benefit from the group policy to the beneficiary
which of the following is an example of liquidity in a life insurance contract?1. the death benefit paid to the beneficiary2. the flex premium3. the money in a savings account4. the cash value available to the policyowner the cash value available to the policyowner
in a life settlement contract, whom does the life settlement broker represent1. owner2. insurer3. beneficiary4. life settlement intermediary owner
in order to quality for conversion from a group life policy to an individual policy of the same coverage, a person must have been insured under the group plan for how many years?1. 12. 33. 54. 10 5
who is a third-party owner?1. an insurer who issues a policy for two people2. an employee in a group policy3. an irrevocable beneficiary4. a policyowner who is not the insured a policyowner who is not the insured
all of the following are business uses of life insurance EXCEPT1. funding against financial loss caused by the death of a key employee2. funding business continuation agreements3. funding against general company financial loss4. compensating executives funding against general company financial loss
which of the following is true regarding taxation of accelerated benefits under a life insurance policy?1. they are tax free to terminally ill insured2. they are always taxable to chronically ill insured3. they are always taxed4. there is a 10% penalty for early distribution of the death benefit they are tax free to terminally ill insured
which of the following is the best reason to purchase life insurance rather than annuities?1. to create regular income payments2. to liquidate a sum of money over a lifetime3. to create an estate4. to liquidate a sum of money over a period of years
if a life insurance policy develops cash value faster than a seven-pay whole life contract, it is1. endowment2. multiplicative policy3. modified endowment contract4. accelerated policy modified endowment contract
the minimum number of credits required for partially insured status for social security disability benefits is1. 4 credits2. 6 credits3. 10 credits4. 40 credits 6 credits
which of the following is NOT true regarding policy loans?1. an insurer can charge interest on outstanding policy loans2. a policy loan may be repaid after the policy is surrendered3. money borrowed from the cash value is taxable4. policy loans can be repaid at death money borrowed form the cash value is taxable
to attain currently insured status under social security, an worker must have earned at least how many credits during the last 13 quarters?1. 4 credits2. 6 credits3. 10 credits4. 40 credits 6 credits
which of the following is incorrect concerning a noncontributory group plan?1. the employee receive individual policies2. they help to reduce adverse selection against insurer3. they require 100% employee participation4. the employer pays 100% of the premiums the employees receive individual policies
a key person insurance policy can pay for which of the following?1. hospital bills of the key employee2. cost of training a replacement3. loss of personal income4. workers compensation cost of training a replacement
an employee quits her job where she has a balance of $10,000 in her qualified plan. if she decides to do a direct transfer from her plan to a traditional IRA, how much will be transferred from one plan adminstrator to another and what is the tax consequence of a direct transfer?1. $8000, no tax consequence2. $8000, tax on growth only3. $10,000, tax on growth only4. $10,000, no tax consequences $10,000, no tax consequences
a producer is helping a married couple determine the financial needs of their children in the event one or both should die prematurely. this is a personal use of life insurance know as1. survivor protection2. life planning3. survivorship insurance4. juvenile protection provision survivor protection
which of the following terms is used to name the nontaxed return of unused premiums?1. dividend2. premium return3. interest4. surrender dividend
SIMPLE plans require all of the following EXCEPT1. employees must receive a minimum of $5000 in annual compensation2. at least 1000 employees3. no other qualified plan can be used4. no more than 100 employees at least 1000 employees
which of the following is the required number of participants in a contributor group plan?1. 75%2. 100%3. 25%4. 50% 75%
social security was created to protect against all of the following EXCEPT1. sickness in old age2. premature death3. disability4. bad investment choices bad investment choices
an IRA purchased by a small employer to cover employees is known as a 1. 403(b) plan2. simplified employee pension plan3. 401(k) plan4. defined contribution plan simplified employee pension plan
if an insured surrenders his life insurance policy, which statement is true regarding the cash value of the policy?1. taxable only if it exceeds the amounts paid for premiums by 50%2. automatically taxable3. only taxable if the cash value exceeds the amount paid for premiums4. not considered to be taxable it is only taxable if the cash value exceeds the amount paid for premiums
which of the following terms means a result of calculation based on the average number of month the insured is projected to live due to medical history and mortality factors?1. morbidity2. life expectancy3. mortality rate4. risk exposure life expectancy
all of the following are TRUE of the federal tax advantages of a qualified plan EXCEPT1. funds accumulate on a tax-deferred basis2. employee and employer contributions are not counted as income to the employee for income tax purposes3. at distribution, all amounts by the employee are tax free4. employer contributions are tax deductible as ordinary business expense at distribution, all amounts received by the employee are tax free
a 60 year old participant in a 401(k) plan takes a distribution and rolls it over to an IRA within 60 days. which of the follow is true?1. the amount of the distribution is reduced by the amount of a 20% withholding tax2. no taxes are due since the plan participant is over age 59 1/23. there is a 10% early withdrawal penalty4. the amount distributed is subject to ordinary income tax
which of the following would describe a legal document which would dictate who can buy a deceased partner’s share of the business and for what amount?1. split dollar agreement2. buy-sell agreement3. profit and loss agreement4. key person agreement buy-sell agreement
what is the name of the insured who enters into a viatical settlement?1. viatical broker2. viator3. third party4. contingent viator
when an employer offers to give an employee a wage increase in the amount of the premium on a new life insurance policy, this is called a(n)1. key person policy2. fraternal association3. aleatory contract4. executive bonus executive bonus
in life insurance policies, cash values increases1. are income taxable immediately2. are taxed annually3. are only taxed when owner reaches age 654. grow tax deferred grow tax deferred
an internal revenue code provision that specifically provides for an individual retirement plan for public school teachers is a(n)1. 403(b) plan (TSA)2. keogh plan3. roth IRA4. sep 403(b) plan (TSA)
an individual has been diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease. he is insured udner a life insurance policy with the accelerated benefits rider. which of the following is true regarding taxation of the accelerated benefits?1. principal is tax free, but interest is taxed2. entire benefit will be received tax free3. the entire living benefit is considered taxable income4. portion of the benefit up to a limit is tax free; the rest is taxable income portion of the benefit up to a limit is tax free; the rest is taxable income
which of the following types of insurance policies would perform the function of cash accumulation?1. increasing term2. whole life3. term life4. credit life whole life
all of the following statements concerning employer sponsored nonqualified retirement plan are true EXCEPT1. plan is legal method of accumulating money for retirement needs.2. plan can discriminate as to who may participate3. plan is not approved to favorable tax treatment by IRS4. the employer can receive a current tax deduction for any contribution made into a plan the employer can receive a current tax deduction for any contribution made into a plan
if an insured worker has earned 40 quarters of coverage, the worker’s status under social security disability is1. permanently insured2. fully insured3. partially insured4. correctly insured full insured
an employee quits his job and converts his group policy to an individual policy; the premium for the individual policy will be based on his1. experience rating2. group rate3. insurer’s scheduled rate4. attained age attained age
what is the primary purpose of a 401(k) plan?1. life insurance2. retirement3. education funds4. to receive dividends over a certain period retirement
which of the following employees under a group life plan would be allowed to convert to individual insurance of the same coverage once the plan is terminated?1. those who have no history of claims2. those who have been insured under the plan for at least 5 years3. those who have worked in the company for at least 3 years4. those who have dependents those who have been insured under the plan for at least 5 years
what is the purpose of key person insurance?1. to insure retirement benefits are available to all key employees2. to maintain an account that insures the owner of a company remains solvent3. to lessen the risk of financial loss because o the death of a key employee4. to provide health insurance to the families of key employees to lessen the risk of financial loss because o the death of a key employee
an insured has a modified endowment contract. he wants to withdraw some money in order to pay medical bills. which of the following is true?1. he will not have to pay a penalty, regardless of age2. he cannot withdraw money from his MEC before age 59 1/23. he will have to pay a penalty if he is younger than 59 1/24. he will have to pay a penalty regardless of his age he will have to pay a penalty if he is younger than 59 1/2
which of the following statements concerning buy-sell agreements true?1. buy-sell agreements pay in the event of a medical emergency2. buy-sell agreements are normally funded with life insurance policy3. premiums paid are deductible as a business expense4. benefits received are consider income taxable buy-sell agreements are normally funded with life insurance policy
in a direct rollover, how is the money transferred from one plan to the new one?1. from the original plan to the original custodian2. from trustee to trustee3. from trustee to the participant4. from participant to the new plan from trustee to trustee
which of the following is NOT an example of a business use of life insurance?1. buy-sell funding2. executive bonuses3. key person4. worker’s compensation worker’s compensation
who is the owner and who is the beneficiary on a key person life insurance policy?1. the key employee is the owner and the employer is the beneficiary2. the employer is the owner and beneficiary 3. the employer is the owner and the key employee is the beneficiary4. the key employee is the owner and beneficiary the employer is the owner and beneficiary
all of the following are true of key person insurance EXCEPT1. the key employee is the insured2. the plan is funded by permanent insurance only3. there is no limitation on the number of key employee plans in force at nay one time4. the employer is the owner, payor and beneficiary of the policy the plan is funded by permanent insurance only
all of the following are requirements of eligibility for social security disability income benefits EXCEPT1. fully insured status2. waiting period of 5 months3. being age 654. inability to perform any gainful work being age 65
which of the following best defines the “owner” as it pertains to life settlement contracts?1. fiduciary for the contract2. insurance provider3. policyowner of the life insurance policy4. financial entity tat sponsors the transaction policyowner of the life insurance policy
all of the following statements are true regarding tax-qualified annuities EXCEPT1. tax accumulation is deferred2. they must be approved by the IRS3. withdraws are taxed4. employer contributions are no tax deductible employer contributions are not tax deductible
a corporation is the owner and beneficiary of the key person life policy. if the corporation collects the policy benefit, then1. the benefit is received tax free2. the benefit is subject to the exclusionary rule3. IRS has no jurisdiction4. the benefit is received as taxable income the benefit is received tax free
which of the following is NOT true of life settlements?1. seller must be terminally ill2. could be used for a key person coverage3. could be sold for an amount greater than the current cash value4. involve insurance policies with large face amounts seller must be terminally ill
for a retirement plan to be qualified, it must be designed for the benefit of1. key employee2. employer3. IRS4. employees employees
which of the following insurance arrangements will be appropriate for a parent buying a life insurance policy on a child where the parent is the policyowner?1. a buy-sell agreement2. family term rider3. third-party ownership4. an irrevocable beneficiary third-party ownership
all of the following would be eligible to establish a keogh retirement plan EXCEPT1. the president and employee of a family corporation2. a sole proprietor of a service station who employs four employees3. a sole proprietor of a film development store with no employees4. a hair dresser who operates her business at her house the president and employee of a family corporation
employer contributions made to qualified plan1. may discriminate in favor of highly paid employee2. are after-tax contributions3. are taxed annually as salary4. are subject to vesting requirements are subject to vesting requirements
if an immediate annuity is purchased with the face amount at death or with cash value at surrender, this would be considered a1. nonforfeiture option2. rollover3. settlement option4. nontaxable exchange settlement option
an insured under a life insurance policy has been diagnosed with a terminal illness and has 6 months to live. the insured knows that his financial state will worsen even more with the upcoming medical expenses. what option could the insured utilize?1. estate liquidation2. nonpayment of premium3. change of beneficiary4. viatical settlement viatical settlement
all of the following are characteristic of group life insurance EXCEPT1. amount of coverage is determined according to nondiscriminatory rules2. individuals covered under the policy receive a certificate of insurance3. certificate holders may convert coverage to an individual policy without evidence of insurability4. premiums are determined by the age, sex, and occupation of each individual certificate holder premiums are determined by the age, sex, and occupation of each individual certificate holder
what is the main purpose of the seven-pay test?1. it guarantees interest minimum2. it determines if the insurance policy is an MEC3. it requires level premium payments for 7 years4. it ensures that the policy benefits are paid out in 7 years it determines if the insurance policy is an MEC
what is the official name for the social security program?1. old age survivors disability insurance2. social insurance program3. defined benefit retirement insurance4. qualified pension plan old age survivors disability insurance
who can make a fully deductible contribution to a traditional IRA?1. a person whose contributions are funded by a return on investment2. an individual not covered by an employer-sponsored plan who has earned income3. anybody: all IRA contributions are fully deductible regardless of income level4. someone making contributions to an educational IRA an individual not covered by an employer-sponsored plan who has earned income
all of the following are general requirements of a qualified plan EXCEPT1. plan must be permanent, written and legally binding2. plan must provide an offset for social security benefits3. plan must be communicated to all employees4. plan must be for the exclusive benefits of the employees and their beneficiaries plan must provide an offset for social security benefits
which of the following is TRUE of a qualified plan?1. has a tax benefit for both employer and employee2. does not need to have a vesting schedule3. may discriminate in favor of highly paid employees4. may allow unlimited contributions has a tax benefit for both employer and employee
a 403(b) plan, commonly referred to as a TSA, is available to be used by1. postal employees2. self-employed persons3. teachers and not-for-profit organizations4. government workers teachers and not-for-profit organizations
if a life insurance policy develops cash value faster than a seven-pay whole life contract, it is 1. multiplicative policy2. modified endowment contract3. accelerated policy4. endowment modified endowment contract
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Business Exam 2-ch 7

Organizational structure is defined as the arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization
When managers assign work activities to groups and individuals and coordinate the diverse activities required to attain organizational objectives, they contribute to the development of organizational structure
A department store’s organizational structure defines the relationships between all the individuals working together to achieve its objectives.
The more people an organization has and the greater its specialization, the greater is its need for sales
An organization’s shared values, beliefs, traditions, philosophies, rules, and tole models for behavior represent its organizational culture
The benefits of division of labor were described in the wealth of nations by adam smith
many experts believe people can perform most efficiently if they master just one task rather than all tasks. A famous book that supports this point was published in 1776 and is titled Wealth of nations
Small businesses commonly employ functional departmentalization
All of the following are approaches to departmentalization except line
A company that has departments for marketing, finance, personnel, and production is organized by function
___ departmentalization arranges jobs around the needs of various types of customers. Customer
Which of the following concepts frees a manager to attend to matters that he or she is especially qualified to deal with? Delegation of authority
if Edgar’s manager gives him an assignment without providing Edgar with the resources to complete the assignment, Edgar’s manager is exhibiting improper delegation of authority
John is a copywriter in his company’s marketing department. The copy for an ad placed in Time magazine for his company spelled the company’s name wrong. Who is ultimately responsible for the mistake? The marketing vice president
An organization operating in a complex and unpredictable environment is likely to be ____ in order to improve responsiveness and enhance creativity. decentralized
When superiors and subordinates are not in close proximity and the manager has many responsibilities in addition to supervision, the appropriate span of management would be narrow
which of the following is not a basis for organizing using a multidivisional structure? Project
An advantage of line structure in organizations is a clear chain of command
which of the following organizational forms is also called a project management structure? Matrix structure
which of the following organizational forms allows managers to take responsibility for the areas in which they specialize? Line and staff structure
multidivisional structures organize departments into larger divisions, often based on geography, product, and/or customer
which of the following is formed to solve specific quality, service or productivity problems? Quality-assurance team
which of the following is a temporary group of employees, usually chosen for their expertise, responsible for bringing out a specific change? Task force
work groups have individual accountability
teams have a strong, clearly focused leader
a permanent, formal group that performs a specific task is a committee
a temporary group of employees responsible for bringing about a particular change is a task force
project teams run their operation and have control of a specific work project.
diagonal communication occurs when individuals from different units and departments within an organization communicate
which of the following is an informal communication channel? the grapevine
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21.3 The business cicle

The high point of a economic activity is called A peak
Which of the following desribes the effect of the business cycle on the inflation rate? The unemployement rate increases and the inflation rate falls during recessions
The low point of economic activity is called a trough
The period between the high point of economic activity and the following low point is called a recession
The period between the low point of economic activity and the following high point is called an expansion
Why might the unemployment rate continue to rise during the early stae of a recovery? Because (a) and (c) are true:a) Employement may grow slowly relative to the growth of the labor forceb) Some firms continue to operte well below capacity even after a recession has ended
Which of the following choices is correct? (about recessions and expansions) Recessions were more severe and lasted longer in the first half of the 20th century than in the second half
Many economists agteee the difference (recessions in the first vs. second half of 20th cnt.) is due to all of the following reasons except: Sine the 1950s, people have become more rational and control their spending countercyclically.
Consider the following goods, which are likely to fluctuate more / less than fluctuation of real GDP More than (Durabl goods)- Ford F150 trucks- Kenmore refrigator – Caterpillar industrial traktorsLess than (non-durable goods)- McDonalds BigMac- Huggies Diapers
The national Bureau of Econ (NBER), a private group, is responsible for declaring when recession begin and end. The BEA, part of the Gov., might not want to take on this responsibility, Which of the following is th most appropriate reason for th BEA’s refusal? Because it is part of the Government, the BEA could be pulled into politics with the dating of recessions.
When firm expand during recession, they cannot be certain when recovery will occur nd know they could expereience prolonged losses
A more cautios approach (to expansion during a recession) might be advisable where: Sales are particular cyclical
Real GP was 15.5 Trillion. This value is a large number. Therefore economic growth must have been high during 2012. Do you agree with this statement? No, I do not agree.
Changes in the demand for housing affect Whirlpool’s sale because Washing mashines and dryers are installed or included in virtually every home purchased.
Imagine you own a business and you layed off 20% of workforce during a recession. Once economic activity picks up and your sales begin to increase, why might you not immidiately start re-hiring? Before rehiring you would like to make sure that this economic expansion lasts.
What is the great moderation? The absence of severe recessions sine the mid 1980’s
By 2011, why might some people have considered the great moderation to habe been a delusion? The recession that began in December 2007 was the longest and most severe since the great recession of the 1930’s
What is the general relationship between the business cycle, unemployment and inflation? During an expansion, unemployment falls and inflation increases
Use the graph to help determine whichone of the following statements regarding fluctuations in GDP is true: In the first half of the 20th centurity, real GDP had much more severe swings than in the second half.
From a trough to a pea, the economy goes through the expansion phase of the business cycle
Typically, when will the NBER announces that the economy is a rcession? A year or more after the recession has begun
As the economy nears the end of an expansion, which of the following typically occurs?
As the economy nears the end of an expansion, which of the following typically occurs? A) All of the above- Interests rise- Wages rising faster than prices- Profits are falling
Purchases of which types of goods are business cylcles most likely to affect? Durable goods
Recessions cause the inflation rate to…and th unemployement rate to… Decrease / Increase
Which of the following is not a reason that the economiy is considerd to have been more stable in the 1950 to 2007 period than in other periods? Continoually falling oil prices
During the last half of the 20th century the US economy experienced long expansions, interrupted by relatively short recessions
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Management and Leadership – Zappos

Zappos was created and made possible by a changing business-environmental factor. This factor ispolitical.legal.technology.competition.socio cultural. technology
The style of leadership at Zappos is most closely aligned withautocratic leadership.free-rein leadership.equity financing.participative leadership.country club management. free-rein leadership.
Companies often use ______________ to create long-term strategic plans for the organization.a strategic matrixan organizational charta planning zonea SWOT analysiscontingency plans
Companies often use ______________ to create long-term strategic plans for the organization.a strategic matrixan organizational charta planning zonea SWOT analysiscontingency plans a SWOT analysis
Zappos trains, educates, and gives its employees the knowledge to make decisions in the workplace. This philosophy is referred to asselling.educating.managing.direct investment.enabling. enabling
The customer who purchases the product from Zappos would be calleda Zappo.an external customer.an owner.an internal customer.a happy customer. an external customer.
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Chapter 2 – BUSINESS COMMUNICATION

Which of the following is characteristic of learner mind-sets?A. viewing differences of opinion as normalB. working by a firm set of rules and guidelinesC. displaying an unwillingness to hear other people’s point of viewD. ascribing negative traits to people with opposing viewsE. agreeing with everything you hear A. viewing differences of opinion as normal
Which of the following is a sign of a person paying attention?A. a slouched and relaxed positionB. a cursory glance accompanied by a smileC. a closed body positionD. a deep breath to relax oneselfE. a nod to indicate acknowledgement E. a nod to indicate acknowledgement
Which of the following is a funnel question?A. In what way do you think our shipping practices contribute to our high expenses?B. Is your suggestion consistent with our goal to reduce our overall budget?C. How can we reduce our expenses for office supplies to meet our budget goals?D. What did you learn in the meeting you had with our colleagues in Baltimore last week?E. Now that we know we want to reduce the company budget, what subcategories should we consider? E. Now that we know we want to reduce the company budget, what subcategories should we consider?
What is the process of interpreting messages from others into meaning?A. noiseB. decodingC. encodingD. receiverE. feedback B. decoding
What term is used for events that cause strong, often negative, emotional responses?A. messagesB. hijackingC. stressD. triggersE. noise D. triggers
in tense and emotionally charged situations, it is important toA. ask cross-examination questions.B. maintain your point of view.C. be uncompromising.D. hold judgmentE. speak loudly and assertively. D. hold judgment
Which of the following employees is most likely to have a blue motivational value system?A. Darwin focuses on encouraging the growth of coworkers.B. Michele dislikes it when people don’t fight back if they have been wronged.C. Therese gets annoyed when she perceives that people don’t take work seriously.D. Ted wants to make sure that decisions have been completely thought out.E. Elise wants the team to remain as flexible as possible. A. Darwin focuses on encouraging the growth of coworkers.
In the interpersonal communication process, the messages exchanged areA. simultaneous and mutual.B. simultaneous and individual.C. sequential and mutual.D. sequential and individual.E. simultaneous and exclusionary A. simultaneous and mutual.
Which of the following is a strength of introverts?A. acting quickly if they see an advantageB. meeting people at large social eventsC. making a positive first impressionD. asking thoughtful, important questionsE. gaining the support of other colleagues D. asking thoughtful, important questions
What is sight-reading?A. understanding and managing emotions to serve goalsB. intelligent observation of nonverbal communicationC. the process of interpreting messages from others into meaningD. understanding your emotions as they occur and how they affect youE. the discipline to hold off emotions to meet long-term intentions B. intelligent observation of nonverbal communication
Asking oneself how certain emotions alter or distort one’s thinking helps improveA. relationship management.B. self-awareness.C. empathy.D. physical noise.E. sight-reading. B. self-awareness.
Which of the following employees is acting with incivility?A. Kathy’s motto is “Let’s agree to disagree” when contentious issues arise.B. Pilar refuses to multitask when her coworkers are talking to her.C. Rena displays interest in her coworkers’ personal accomplishments.D. Scott usually greets female colleagues by saying, “Hello there, girls.”E. Ben asks rather than orders his administrative assistant to take care of tasks D. Scott usually greets female colleagues by saying, “Hello there, girls.”
Which of the following employees is most likely to be a hub?A. Rebecca emphasizes the importance of being logical.B. Juan loves a fast-moving, competitive work environment.C. Cho works at coordinating the efforts of the whole team.D. Jerome pushes for self-reliance and effective use of resources.E. Jenni hates it when team members are competitive. C. Cho works at coordinating the efforts of the whole team.
Frank is having difficulty hearing the point his coworker is making because of loud hammering outside the window. What type of noise is Frank experiencing?A. physiologicalB. cognitiveC. psychologicalD. semanticE. physical E. physical
Why does emotional hijacking occur?A. People are hard-wired to feel emotions about a situation before they reason it out.B. People spend too much time developing self-awareness, so they become overly emotional.C. People deliberately use their emotions to manipulate the reactions of others.D. People have a high emotional intelligence, which makes them less emotional.E. People experience a great deal of physiological noise that interferes with reasoning A. People are hard-wired to feel emotions about a situation before they reason it out.
Which of the following is a solution-oriented question?A. Now that we know we want to reduce the company budget, what subcategories should we consider?B. What did you learn in the meeting you had with our colleagues in Baltimore last week?C. How can we reduce our expenses for office supplies to meet our budget goals?D. In what way do you think our shipping practices contribute to our high expenses?E. Is your suggestion consistent with our goal to reduce our overall budget? C. How can we reduce our expenses for office supplies to meet our budget goals?
_____ involves favorable explanations for why others have behaved in a certain way.A. Relationship managementB. Mitigating informationC. Self-managementD. Emotional hijackingE. Decoding B. Mitigating information
When you are trying to read another person’s nonverbal clues, which of the following should you focus on the most?A. the eyesB. the noseC. the neckD. the chinE. the feet A. the eyes
What are probing questions?A. Probing questions are intended to analyze a business problem from every angle in order to uncover its root causes.B. Probing questions move from general to specific and are intended to increasingly deconstruct a business issue.C. Probing questions are narrow-ended questions that are actually opinions presented in question form.D. Probing questions focus on what should be done to solve business problems and accomplish business objectives.E. Probing questions break the ice and gradually ease people into conversations about shared business interests. A. Probing questions are intended to analyze a business problem from every angle in order to uncover its root causes.
Matt and LaRita grew up in communities that view authority in very different ways, so they have difficulty understanding each other at times. The problem is being caused primarily because ofA. differences in self-awareness.B. psychological noise.C. emotional hijacking.D. differences in emotional intelligence.E. a filter of lifetime experiences. E. a filter of lifetime experiences.
Which of the following employees is most likely to be an extrovert?A. Irina is patient and persevering at long, detailed tasks.B. Aun takes time to consider the ramifications of every decision.C. Phil prefers to work alone rather than on a team.D. Bob has a small network of colleagues he works with closely.E. Len meets everyone in the department by his third day on the job E. Len meets everyone in the department by his third day on the job
Which of the following is most likely to be true about the people who exhibit high self-management?A. They react defensively and with a me-first attitude when threats are perceived.B. They are unable to control their emotional impulses.C. They show a sincere interest in others’ efforts, ideas, and successes.D. They spend a higher percentage of work conversations on work-related topics.E. They frequently vent frustrations without a constructive work purpose. D. They spend a higher percentage of work conversations on work-related topics.
______ is a show of respect for the dignity and importance of others.A. CivilityB. EmpathyC. OptimismD. DecodingE. Synchronizing A. Civility
On the day after her boyfriend broke up with her, Candace found out at work that someone else received the promotion she was hoping to get. Instead of asking her manager what she could do to improve her chances in the future, she raged about how unfair life is. What did Candace experience?A. emotional intelligenceB. physical noiseC. high self-managementD. high self-awarenessE. emotional hijacking E. emotional hijacking
People who speak out constructively about differences of opinion are most likely to haveA. low empathy.B. low self-management skills.C. low self-awareness.D. high relationship management skills.E. high self-awareness. D. high relationship management skills.
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Chapter 9 Business CAOT 32

Cassandra will be writing a bad-news letter to a customer and wants to follow the four-part indirect plan. In what order should she organize her letter? Buffer, reasons, bad news, closing
Select the best buffer to open a letter that refuses a request from a local nonprofit organization for a charitable donation. The services you provide for homeless families in our community are necessary and important.
Select the best subject line for a memo delivering bad news to employees. Change in Parking Benefit
The most important part of a bad-news letter is the section that explains the reasons for the bad news.
Which of the following is the best advice when presenting the reasons for the bad news? Cite reader or other benefits if plausible.
Gerald discovered that one of his employees has filed a fraudulent expense claim. What is the best advice for Gerald to deliver the bad news to this employee tactfully, professionally, and safely? Gerald should prepare and rehearse what he will say.
What statement about delivering bad news within an organization is most accurate? A tactful tone is useful when communicating bad news within organizations.
Capital Management is in a budget crunch and plans to make major layoffs next month. What is the best advice for communicating this crisis to employees? Deliver the bad news to employees personally if possible.
Jeannie must deliver bad news to her staff in person, and she knows they’ll be upset. What should Jeannie do first to prepare for the meeting? Gather all relevant information.
A company must deliver bad news to hundreds of employees and wants to use digital media to do so. Which communication tool is acceptable? Any of these digital communication tools is acceptable for delivering bad news to employees.
What is the best advice for closing a bad-news letter? Close with something forward looking that assumes future business.
Select the most accurate statement. An employee’s words, decisions, and opinions are assumed to represent those of the organization.
Roger’s company will be raising the prices of its basic services, and Roger must write to customers to inform them of these increases. What is the most important thing he should do when writing this message? Explain the reasons and hook the increase to benefits.
The bad feelings associated with disappointing news can generally be reduced if the receiver All of these choices (believes that the matter was treated seriously and fairly, feels the news was revealed sensitively, knows the reasons for the rejection)
Deborah must deny a request made by one of her employees. The most effective statement in a bad-news message denying this request would be Although your extra night cannot be reimbursed, we will process the remainder of your expense claim immediately.
What is the most accurate statement about negative workplace messages? Some businesses have to respond to complaints voiced on social network sites such as Facebook and Twitter.
Wesley has included this opening statement in a bad-news message to a client: We both realize that the current economic downturn has resulted in lower stock prices. What kind of buffer is this? Agreement
When should the direct pattern be used to communicate negative news? When firmness is necessary
Which of the following statements is most accurate? In writing to a customer about a problem with an order, generally, you should use the direct patternif the message has some good-news elements.
Select the best sentence to include in the closing paragraph of a badnews letter that turns down a job applicant. We wish you the best in your job search
The major differences between the direct and indirect strategies are whether you start witha buffer and how early you explain the reasons for the negative news.
Select the best subject line for a memo delivering bad news to employees. Change in Parking Benefit
Timothy is writing a badnews message to his supervisor and is now in Phase 3 of thewriting process. What should he do during this phase? Timothy should do all of these (check that his wording concise, make sure that his tone is friendlyand respectful, and ensure that he has delivered the bad news clearly but professionally). Heshould also check his grammar and spelling for correctness.
Peter must deny an employee’s request to work from home two days a week. What is thebest way to begin this bad news message? You are an extremely valued member of our team, and we all benefit from being able to work withyou face-to-face on a daily basis.
In a recommendation letter, Nathan falsely accuses former employee Jacqueline of treating her supervisor disrespectfully. This action is considered to be libel.
Goldstar Investments has just learned that it is being sued for securities fraud. What shouldtop management at Goldstar do? Hold a press conference to announce the bad news before the media does.
Most job refusal letters use the indirect strategy
Which of the following is not one of the goals in communicating negative news? To hide the real reason for the negative news
The most effective statement in a badnews letter declining an invitation to speak to aprofessional organization would be Although I’m already booked the night of your dinner, I would be happy to speak to yourorganization sometime next year.
You are opening a new restaurant and realize that customers might post reviews online.What should you do? You should do all of these: recognize social networks as an important communication channel, tryto monitor comments, and use social media sites to interact with customers.
Which is the most effective statement in a letter to a customer denying credit? To learn more about your credit record, log onto http://www.ftc.gov/freereports to obtainyour free credit reports.
What is the best advice for delivering the bad news? Suggest a compromise or alternative.
Which of the following is an appropriate statement when saying no to job applicants? We appreciate your interest in our company and wish you every success in your jobsearch.
When writing a letter to a customer denying credit, you have four goals. Which of thefollowing is not one of these goals? Promising the customer that credit will be granted in the future
You’re not sure how your reader will react to the bad news you will be delivering. Whatshould you do? Organize the bad-news message using the indirect strategy.
The most effective statement in a letter to a local charitable organization refusing its requestfor a donation would be Even though our budget won’t allow a contribution this year, we hope to be able to contributenext year
What is the best advice for writing a letter that turns down a customer’s claim? Consider offering resale information to build the customer’s confidence in your products ororganization.
Following up on bad-news in writing is important to Following up on bad news in writing is important for all these purposes.
Which of the following sentences uses the passive voice to present the bad news? Although the social media specialist position has been filled, we wish you well in your jobsearch.
Katie makes an abusive statement about David. This language will be actionable if all of these statements are true (if her statements are damaging to David’s reputation, she sends the messages by e-mail to two other employees by the department.
Morgan has decided that she must apologize to a customer in her buffer. Which of these following is the best example of an effective apology? You have every right to be concerned, and we sincerely apologize for the delay in filling your order. To prevent this from occurring again, we have upgraded our software and retrained our order takers.
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Business Law: Chapter 1- The Legal Environment

What is the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) and what does it do? A model law drafted by the National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws and the American Law Institute. Provides a uniform flexible set of rules that govern most commercial transactions (which were created by a set of experts, and adopted by all the States- but only in part by Louisana
Uniform Laws are created by panel of experts and ared adopted at the option of each state’s legislature
Remedy Remedies, in general, refers to the the relief given to an innocent party to enforce a right or to compensate for the violation of a right.
What is the difference between remedies at law and in equity? Remedies at law are limited to payments of money or property (including land) as damages.Remedies in equity is available only when there is no adequate remedy at law. A court of equity, could issue a decree for specific performance- an order to perform what was promised; or they can also issue an injunction, directing a party to do or refrain from doing a particular act; possibly even a contract rescission (cancellation). Sometimes known as Equity Relief. Today, actions at law has the right to demand a jury trial, whereas, actions in equity cannot.
What is “common law tradition”? The body of law developed from custom or judicial decisions in English and U.S courts. It’s largely based on previous court decisions to ensure consistencies regarding similar cases.
What is a precedent? an established rule of law set by a previous court decision. Usually comes from cases involving legal facts and raising similar principles as the case at hand.
When might a court depart from precedent? Although courts are obligated to follow precedents, sometimes a court will depart from the rule of precedents if it decides that a given precedent should no longer be followed.if a court decides that a precedent is simply incorrect or that technological or social changes have rendered the precedent inapplicable, the court might rule contrary to it.
What are some important differences between civil law and criminal law? Civil law concerns rights and duties of individuals between themselves; Criminal law concerns offenses against society as a whole.
What are the three branches of government that create law in the United States?
What are the 4 sources of American Law? – Constitutional Law- Statutory Law- Administrative Law- Case Law & Common Law Doctrines
Primary Sources of Law A statement, or document, that establishes the law on a particular issue; such as a constitution, a statute (law), an administrative rule, or a court decision.
Secondary Source of Law A publication that summarizes or interprets the law; such as a legal encyclopedia, a legal treatise, or an article in a law review.
What areas of the law might affect Business Transactions? Contracts; Sales; Negotiable Instruments; Creditors’ Rights; Intellectual Property; E-Commerce; Product Liability; Torts; Agency; Business Organizations; Warranties; and Courts & Court Procedures.
Constitutional Law The Federal constitution is a general document that distributes power among the branches of the government. It is the supreme law of the LAND. Any law that conflicts with this is invalid. The states also have constitutions, but the federal constitution prevails if their provisions conflict (10th amendment).
Statutory Law Congress and state legislatures enact statutes, and local legislative bodies enact ordinances. Much of the work of the courts is interpreting the statutes.
“Stare Decisis” – to stand on decided cases- involves the consistent application by lower courts of principles applied in earlier cases with similar facts.
Administrative Law consists of the rules, orders and decisions of administrative agencies.
What is the difference between Substantive Law and Procedural Law? Substantive law defines, describes, regulates and creates rights and duties. While Procedural law includes rules for enforcing those rights.
Case Law and Common Law Doctrine these are court decisions which are judicial interpretatiions of constitutional provisions, of statutes enacted by legislatures, and of regulations created by administrative agencies.